Answer:
I beleive it is D
Step-by-step explanation:
Always remember that percent means "out of 100". That means the 40%=40/100=.4
so 40% of 120 is equivalent to .4(120)=48
Hope I helped
Okay so i’m not 100% but i think it’s 37 is the first number then it’s 37/9 x 9/2 which is 18.5 or 18 1/2
but you find it by first doing 4x9 and adding the 1 and then you do keep change flip when dividing fractions and solve it out so i think that’s how you do it :)
Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.81 = 81% probability that NEITHER customer is selected to receive a coupon.
For each customer, there are only two possible outcomes, either they receive the coupon, or they do not. The probability of a customer receiving the coupon is independent of any other customer, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
In this problem:
- For each customer, 10% probability of receiving a coupon, thus
. - 2 customers are selected, thus

The probability that <u>neither receives a coupon is P(X = 0)</u>, thus:


0.81 = 81% probability that NEITHER customer is selected to receive a coupon.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/25326823
Answer:
They won 10 matches.
Step-by-step explanation:
The ratio is 2 wins to 3 losses.
You can use a proportion.
2 wins is to 3 losses as x wins is to 15 losses.
2/3 = x/15
3x = 2 * 15
3x = 30
x = 10
Answer: 10 wins