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Yakvenalex [24]
3 years ago
8

A decrease in the inventory account during the year should be reported on the indirect method statement of cash flows as:

Business
2 answers:
Elza [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a.An increase in cash flows from operating activities

Explanation:

The cash flow statement categories the company's transactions in a financial period into 3 groups; these are operating, investing and financing.

The net profit/loss, depreciation, changes in current assets such as inventory, accounts receivables etc, (other than cash) and liabilities are considered as operating activities including income taxes.  

The sale of assets, interest received, purchase of investments are examples of investing activities while the issuance of stocks, debt principal deduction (loan settlement), issuance of debt securities etc are examples of financing activities.

An increase in assets other than cash is an outflow while an increase in liabilities is an inflow. A decrease in assets (other than cash) is an inflow of cash while a decrease in liabilities is an outflow of cash.

Xelga [282]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a.An increase in cash flows from operating activities.

Explanation:

When calculating Cash Flow from Operating Activities an Increase in Current Assets is deducted and Decrease in Current Assets is Added in the Net Income to arrive at Cash Flow from Operating Activities in the Indirect Method  of Cash Flow Statement.

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On January 1, Concord Corporation issued $4300000, 9% bonds for $3995000. The market rate of interest for these bonds is 10%. In
Serga [27]

Answer:

The correct option is D,$292,500

Explanation:

The unamortized bond discount is the balance of the bond discount left at the end of first year when that year portion of bond discount has been amortized.

In order to ascertain the balance of the unamortized bond discount,we prepare the bond schedule showing how much was amortized in the year as follows:

Bal b/f                 interest expense at10%   coupon payment 9%           Bal c/f

$3,995,000         $399,500                         $387,000                     $4,007,500

The amortized interest is the difference between the interest expense based on the cash proceeds and the coupon payment calculated on the face value of $4.3 million

amortized discount=$399,500-$387,000=$12,500

Total bond discount=$4,300,000-$3,995,000=$305,000

unamortized discount=$305,000-$12,500=$292,500

                           

3 0
3 years ago
During the months of January and February, Hancock Corporation sold goods to three customers. The sequence of events was as foll
hram777 [196]

Answer:

the net sales for the two months is $2,448

Explanation:

The computation of the net sales for the two months is shown below:

= Sale made on Jan 6 + sale made on Jan 6 + sales made on Feb 28 - discount on sale made on Jan 6

= $1,400 + $690 + $400 - ($1,400 × 3%)

= $2,490 - $42

= $2,448

hence, the  net sales for the two months is $2,448

The same is to be considered

5 0
3 years ago
Discuss social responsibility and ethics?<br><br>​
LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:

Social responsibility: It is an ethical theory in which individuals are accountable for fulfilling their civic duty.

Social ethics: It refers to guidelines and principle if that group of people who decided to references to in order to be accepted.

8 0
3 years ago
Buying the beneficiary position on a life insurance policy of someone who is dying
MaRussiya [10]

Buying the beneficiary position on a life insurance policy of someone who is dying is referred to as <u>Viatical Settlement</u>

Explanation:

  • <u>Viatical settlement</u> refers to the sale of a life insurance policy by the owner to a third party for a amount which is more than its surrender value but less than its net death benefit.
  • Viatical settlement provides the policy owner with a lump some amount of money.
  • The <u>viatical settlement </u>is tax-free as per the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) 1996

6 0
3 years ago
"Budget deficits should be avoided, even if the economy is below potential, because they reduce saving and lead to lower growth.
bixtya [17]

Answer:

the long-run framework directs one to avoid deficits; in the short-run framework deficits are useful if the economy is significantly below potential.

Explanation:

"Budget deficits should be avoided, even if the economy is below potential, because they reduce saving and lead to lower growth." This policy directive follow the long-run framework directs one to avoid deficits; in the short-run framework deficits are useful if the economy is significantly below potential.

<u>The reason is that in the short-run, deficits offer economic solutions by being an antidote to recessions, hence they could be a strategy of recession management in the short run</u>

<u>However in the long-run, deficits are not advisable as they could lead to debts because the major way to manage such deficits is by external borrowings. </u>

<u />

5 0
3 years ago
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