Could somebody please help explain if it would be a nonexistent or existent limit? Please answer with a simple and understandabl
e reason to why it would be a nonexistent or existent limit.
1 answer:
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Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that:
In a deck of 52 cards there are 4 aces.
Therefore the probability of obtaining an ace is:
P (x) = 4/52
The probability of not getting an ace is:
P ('x) = 1-4 / 52
P ('x) = 48/52
In this problem the number of aces obtained when extracting cards from the deck is a discrete random variable.
For a discrete random variable V, the expected value is defined as:
Where V is the value that the random variable can take and P (V) is the probability that it takes that value.
We have the following equation for the expected value:
In this problem the variable V can take the value V = 9 if an ace of the deck is obtained, with probability of 4/52, and can take the value V = -1 if an ace of the deck is not obtained, with a probability of 48 / 52
Therefore, expected value for V, the number of points obtained in the game is:
So:
Answer:
cot(∅) =
Step-by-step explanation:
tan ∅ and cot ∅ are inverse functions
therefore the inverse of
tan ∅ = √15 / 10
is equal to
cot ∅ = 10 / √15
Rationalizing the denominator
*
cot ∅ =