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sweet-ann [11.9K]
3 years ago
11

Some economists have argued that, because domestic consumers gain more from free trade than domestic producers gain from (import

) tariffs and quotas, consumers should buy out domestic producers and rid themselves of costly tariffs and quotas. If this was feasible, would you be in favor? If there is a net loss to society from tariffs, why do tariffs exist?
Business
1 answer:
lana66690 [7]3 years ago
4 0

<u>The reason the tariffs exists:</u>

The shift from tariff along free trade increases the consumer surplus as compared to the decline in the producer surplus. By this consumers can compensate the producers for the loss they have faced.

However,there are various other problems in relation to the shift. Generally, there will be a transaction cost of tariff besides the producer's loss surplus. There are several non economic issues that stimulates local producers to go on with tariff instead of getting compensation for the economic loss.

Generally, tariffs are imposed for any one of the following reasons,

  • To protect newly established domestic industries from foreign competition.
  • To limit the number of imports.
  • To protect local producers from getting dumped by foreign companies.
  • To raise revenue.
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The short-run aggregate supply curve implies that real output exceeds its long-run level when the price level is:
Annette [7]

Answer:

greater than the expected price level

Explanation:

The short run aggregate supply curve shows graphically that the real output is more than its long run level when the price level is more than expected price level. When there is great expectation about inflation it shifts the short run Aggregate Supply curve outwards or to the right. Price level would then rise in the long run but real output would stay the same or unchanged.

4 0
3 years ago
The journal entry to record the use of utilities in a factory could include which two of the following: (You may select more tha
evablogger [386]

Answer:

The correct options are:

A. Debit to Factory Overhead

D. Credit to Factory Utilities Payable

Explanation:

The debit entry of the use of utilities in  a factory would be recorded in factory overhead since cost of utilities is a not a direct factory cost.

However, the corresponding credit would be in the factory utilities payable as an obligation awaiting payment to be made to  the supplier of  the service being enjoyed by the factory in order to run on daily basis

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is an agile MIS infrastructure?
jok3333 [9.3K]

Answer:

Explanation:

Based on my research Agile MIS infrastructure Includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals. Like mentioned previously these all combine in order to form a system which gives the organization to the means of achieving the goals and vision set forth by the founding members of the organization.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

8 0
2 years ago
At the beginning of a year, a company predicts total direct materials costs of $1,010,000 and total overhead costs of $1,270,000
marin [14]

Answer:

1.267 = Overhead Rate

Explanation:

<em>As general approach,</em> the manufacturing rate, along with any rate is done by dividing the cost by a cost driver.

\frac{Cost\:Of\: Manufacturing\: Overhead}{Cost\: Driver}= $Overhead \:Rate

In this case teh cost is the manufacturing overhead and the cost driver the direct materials cost:

\frac{1,270,000}{1,010,000}= $Overhead Rate

<em>Using Direct Materials cost, the rate would be:</em>

1.257425743= $Overhead Rate

3 0
3 years ago
The income elasticity of demand for housing property is exactly 1.40. Due to a recession, you expect incomes to drop by 5% next
a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

Buy 7% less houses

Explanation:

Income elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in income

Income elasticity of demand = percentage change in quantity demanded/ percentage change in income

1.40 = percentage change in quantity demanded/ 5%

Percentage change in quantity demanded = 1.4 × 5% = 7%

Because the coefficient of elasticity is greater than one, it means demand is income elastic. This means quantity demanded is responsive to changes in income. A fall in income would reduce the quantity demanded.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
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