Answer:
Annual depreaciation 2020= $2,400
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Purchase price= $12,000
Salvage value= $2,000
Useful life= 5 years
<u>To calculate the depreciation expense under the double-declining balance, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Annual depreciation= 2*[(book value)/estimated life (years)]
2019:
Annual depreaciation= 2*[(12,000 - 2,000) / 5]
Annual depreaciation= 4,000
2020:
Annual depreaciation= 2*[(10,000 - 4,000) / 5]
Annual depreaciation= $2,400
12.0 years will take for these bonds to mature.
What is a coupon in bonds?
The term "coupon," which is also sometimes referred to as "coupon payment," refers to the annual interest rate that is paid on a bond from the date of issuance until maturity. It is described as being a percentage of the bond's face value. When discussing coupons, the coupon rate is frequently employed.
How does coupon rate affect bond price?
The price of bonds is significantly influenced by the coupon rate on a bond in comparison to current market interest rates. Bond prices increase when a coupon is more than the current interest rate; prices decrease when a coupon is lower.
Learn more about coupon in bonds: brainly.com/question/22504216
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Answer:
Job withdrawal
Explanation:
Job withdrawal can be said to be the behavior individuals show in aspects of their work while maintaining their positions at work. These behaviours are as a result of dissatisfaction with the job as a result of factors such as nature of job, co worker and superiors' interaction, salary or wage levels, etc. It sometimes could be as a result of the employee's attitude to his/her work.
I hope this helps.
Answer:
we can look at this problem from 2 different point of views:
if you have francs and wish to buy pounds: then you take 12 francs and purchase 1 ounce of gold, and then you sell it for 6 pounds. This way you will only spend 2 francs per each pound instead of 2.2.
if you have pounds and want to make a gain: you take 6 pounds and purchase 13.2 francs and you then buy 1.1 ounces of gold. Then you sell the 1.1 ounces of gold in exchange for 6.6 pounds.
Any of the scenarios does not include any transaction prices nor shipping costs, it is only theoretical.
Answer:
The solution shows that a rate of return of 10% which provides an annuity factor of 4.868 generates an NPV which is equal to zero. Thus, our IRR or internal rate of return is 10%.
Explanation:
The IRR or internal rate of return is the rate at which NPV or Net Present Value of the investment becomes zero. We are provided with the initial outlay for the project and the annual cash inflows along with time period. Using the annuity factors given below, we need to find out the factor which makes the NPV zero. The NPV is calculated as follows,
NPV = Present Value of Cash Inflows - Initial Outlay
We can try out each annuity factor and see what NPV is generates.
1. 6% rate (Annuity factor = 5.582)
NPV = (30000 * 5.582) - 146040
NPV = $21420
2. 8% rate (Annuity factor = 5.206)
NPV = (30000 * 5.206) - 146040
NPV = $10140
3. 10% rate (Annuity factor = 4.868)
NPV = (30000 * 4.868) - 146040
NPV = $0
So, from the above solution we can see that a rate of return of 10% which provides an annuity factor of 4.868 generates an NPV which is equal to zero. Thus, our IRR or internal rate of return is 10%
