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Kay [80]
3 years ago
8

What is 2. 3/6 +1/6 +1 2/3

Mathematics
2 answers:
Kaylis [27]3 years ago
8 0
3/6+1/6+1 2/3
Make 1 2/3 into an improper fraction:
5/3
Give them all common denominators by multiplying both sides of 5/3 by 2:
10/6
Then the question becomes:
3/6+1/6+10/6
Now you add the numerators and the denominator stays the same:
14/6
Now you can simplify by dividing both sides by 2:
7/3
Now you can make it a mixed number:
2 1/3

Hope this helps :)
erma4kov [3.2K]3 years ago
8 0
<span>2 3/6 +1/6 +1 2/3
=</span><span>2 3/6 +1/6 +1 4/6
=3 8/6
= 4 2/6
= 4 1/3</span>
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8 0
3 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
Which sequence of transformations on the red triangle will map it onto the missing portion of the square?
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

A 90° counterclockwise rotation about the origin and then a translation 16 units right and 16 units up

Solution -Rotating the triangle 90° counterclockwise will take the triangle to 3rd quadrant and then further moving it 16 steps right will take it to 4th quadrant and followed by 16 steps upward will take it to the desired position which is in 1st quadrant.

7 0
3 years ago
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