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natita [175]
3 years ago
10

Riley used the distributive property to find the product of 37 and 24. Which expression

Mathematics
1 answer:
Viktor [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The expression  Riley could have used to find the product of the two numbers is 24 × (30 + 7).

Step-by-step explanation:

The distribution property for multiplication is:

a\times (b+c)=a\cdot b+a\cdot c

In this case we need to determine the product of 37 and 24.

Compute the product as follows:

37\times 24=24\times (30 +7)

            =(24\times 30)+(24\times 7)\\=720+168\\=888

Thus, the product of 37 and 24 is 888.

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There are 4 possibilities for cone or cup to hold your ice cream.  There are 3 different sizes to choose from.  There are 20 flavors of ace-cream, and then 15 choices of topping. Assuming you must choose 1 flavor of ice cream and 1 topping as the question implies, there are then 4*3*20*15 = 3600 different combinations to choose from. Answer is D: 3600
4 0
4 years ago
PLS ANSWER ASAP THIS QUESTION IS VERY HARD FOR ME
Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

its D if not im so sorry i found the answer on a website

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Will a 9/32 inch diameter pin fit into a reamed hole with a diameter of 0.278 inch? (Do not round off your answer and express it
ollegr [7]

Answer:

9/32 inch diameter pin will not fit into a reamed hole with a diameter of 0.278 inch

Step-by-step explanation:

Diameter of reamed hole = 0.278 inch

Radius of reamed hole = \frac{0.278}{2} =0.139

Surface area of reamed hole = \pi r^2

Surface area of reamed hole = 3.14 \times  (0.139)^2

Surface area of reamed hole = 0.06066794

Diameter of pin = \frac{9}{32}

Radius of pin =\frac{9}{64}

Surface area of pin = \pi r^2 = 3.14 \times ( \frac{9}{64})^2=0.0620

Since the surface area of pin is more than the surface area of hole .

So, a 9/32 inch diameter pin will not fit into a reamed hole with a diameter of 0.278 inch

7 0
4 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Crm%20%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%20%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5Ccos%28%20%5Ccot%28x%29%20%20%20%20-%20%2
Nikolay [14]

Replace x with π/2 - x to get the equivalent integral

\displaystyle \int_{-\frac\pi2}^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

but the integrand is even, so this is really just

\displaystyle 2 \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

Substitute x = 1/2 arccot(u/2), which transforms the integral to

\displaystyle 2 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(u)}{u^2+4} \, du

There are lots of ways to compute this. What I did was to consider the complex contour integral

\displaystyle \int_\gamma \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4} \, dz

where γ is a semicircle in the complex plane with its diameter joining (-R, 0) and (R, 0) on the real axis. A bound for the integral over the arc of the circle is estimated to be

\displaystyle \left|\int_{z=Re^{i0}}^{z=Re^{i\pi}} f(z) \, dz\right| \le \frac{\pi R}{|R^2-4|}

which vanishes as R goes to ∞. Then by the residue theorem, we have in the limit

\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(x)}{x^2+4} \, dx = 2\pi i {} \mathrm{Res}\left(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4},z=2i\right) = \frac\pi{2e^2}

and it follows that

\displaystyle \int_0^\pi \cos(\cot(x)-\tan(x)) \, dx = \boxed{\frac\pi{e^2}}

7 0
2 years ago
A phone company advertises a new plan in which the customer pays a fixed amount
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

<h2>it will take 30 minutes</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

obtain a formula

<h3>=> M = $0.10($p)+$25</h3>

<u>insert the value of p dollars</u>

<h3>=> M = $0.10(50) + 25</h3>

<u>multiply 50 by 0.10</u>

<h3>=> M = $5 + 25</h3>

<em> </em><u>add 25 + 5</u>

<h3><em><u>=></u></em> M = $30</h3>

<u>So it takes 30 minutes for international minutes</u> <em><u>Thank </u></em><em><u>You</u></em>

^_^

3 0
2 years ago
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