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KengaRu [80]
3 years ago
5

How can I show money as a fraction?

Mathematics
1 answer:
abruzzese [7]3 years ago
4 0
You can show money as a fraction by taking the amount of cents, and putting it over 100.

Ex. $1.47 = 147 cents
147 cents = 147/100 in fraction form.
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Why are probability and statistics important?
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Studying probability and statistics will allow you to see the world from an entirely different perspective, since the subjects will give you the tools to model and analyze situations, which involve uncertainty.

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Help plz:)))I’ll mark u Brainliest
sergey [27]

Answer:

10 ft away

Step-by-step explanation:

do pythagorean theorum

24^2 + b^2 = 26^2

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2 years ago
Give the expression 4n^2t/2n^t-1, write the expression as a binomial.
lubasha [3.4K]

 <span>binomial </span>is an algebraic expression containing 2 terms. For example, (x + y) is a binomial.

We sometimes need to expand binomials as follows:

(a + b)0 = 1

(a + b)1 = a + b

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

(a + b)3 = a3 + 3a2b + 3ab2 + b3

<span>(a + b)4</span> <span>= a4 + 4a3b</span><span> + 6a2b2 + 4ab3 + b4</span>

<span>(a + b)5</span> <span>= a5 + 5a4b</span> <span>+ 10a3b2</span><span> + 10a2b3 + 5ab4 + b5</span>

Clearly, doing this by direct multiplication gets quite tedious and can be rather difficult for larger powers or more complicated expressions.

Pascal's Triangle

We note that the coefficients (the numbers in front of each term) follow a pattern. [This was noticed long before Pascal, by the Chinese.]

1

1 1

1 2 1

1 3 3 1

1 4 6 4 1

1 5 10 10 5 1

1 6 15 20 15 6 1

You can use this pattern to form the coefficients, rather than multiply everything out as we did above.

The Binomial Theorem

We use the binomial theorem to help us expand binomials to any given power without direct multiplication. As we have seen, multiplication can be time-consuming or even not possible in some cases.

<span>Properties of the Binomial Expansion <span>(a + b)n</span></span><span><span>There are <span>\displaystyle{n}+{1}<span>n+1</span></span> terms.</span><span>The first term is <span>an</span> and the final term is <span>bn</span>.</span></span><span>Progressing from the first term to the last, the exponent of a decreases by <span>\displaystyle{1}1</span> from term to term while the exponent of b increases by <span>\displaystyle{1}1</span>. In addition, the sum of the exponents of a and b in each term is n.</span><span>If the coefficient of each term is multiplied by the exponent of a in that term, and the product is divided by the number of that term, we obtain the coefficient of the next term.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
The inverse of y = 3x – 2 would be:
Ber [7]
D because y=3x-2
Y+2=3x
Y+2/3=x
3 0
3 years ago
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