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Sav [38]
3 years ago
11

On April 1, 2014, Prince Company assigns $500,000 of its accounts receivable to the Third National Bank as collateral for a $300

,000 loan due July 1, 2014. The assignment agreement calls for Prince Company to continue to collect the receivables. Third National Bank assesses a finance charge of 2% of the accounts receivable, and interest on the loan is 10% per annum(a realistic rate of interest for a note of this type).(a) Prepare the April 1, 2012, journal entry for Prince Company
(b) Prepare the journal entry for Prince
Business
1 answer:
____ [38]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

a) April 1, 2012;

Dr Cash A/C. $290,000

Dr finance charge $10,000

Cr payable $300,000

($500,000 × 2% = $10,000)

b)

Dr Cash A/c $350,000

Cr Account receivable $350,000

c)

Dr payable $300,000

Dr interest expense $7,500

Cr Cash $307,500

(10% × $300,000 × 3/12 = $7,500)

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Connolly Company produces two types of lamps, classic and fancy, with unit contribution margins of $13 and $21, respectively. Ea
Eva8 [605]

Answer:

a. 90,000 classic lamps; 0 fancy lamps

Explanation:

To determine the optimise total contribution, we need to calculate the contribution margin per hour of machine time for both the lamps. Then the result of whichever is higher would be produced.

Moreover, as there is no limitation on how many lamps can be produced, therefore, we would assume that we can make as many as we want up to the limit of machine-hours available. The calculation is done as follows:

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for classic lamp = Contribution/machine hours to build one classic lamp

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for classic lamp = 13 / 0.2

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for classic lamp = 65

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for fancy lamp = Contribution/machine hours to build one fancy lamp

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for fancy lamp = 21 / 0.5

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for fancy lamp = 42

Since classic lamp has the higher contribution margin per hour. Therefore, all the machine hours would be used to make classic lamps.

= 18,000 / 0.2

= 90,000

Hence, 90,000 classic lamps would be sold while no fancy lamps will be sold to optimise total contribution (which would be 65 x 18,000 = $1,170,000).

7 0
3 years ago
Gilmore, Inc., had equity of $145,000 at the beginning of the year. At the end of the year, the company had total assets of $210
kkurt [141]

Answer:

a). Internal growth rate of the company=12.02%

b). Internal growth rate for beginning of period assets=14.71%

c). Internal growth rate for end of period total assets=10.16%

Explanation:

a). The internal growth rate of the company can be expressed as shown;

IGR=ROA×DR

where;

IGR=internal growth rate

ROA=return on asset=Net income/Total average assets

DR=dividend ratio=1-(dividend payment/net income)

In our case;

Return on asset=Net income/total average assets

Net income=$27,000

Total average assets=(Assets at the beginning of the year+assets at the end of the year)/2

Total average assets=(145,000+210,000)/2=$177,500

Return on asset=(27,000/177,500)×100=15.21%

Dividend ratio=1-(dividend payment/net income)=1-(5,800/27,000)

Dividend ratio=1-0.21=0.79

Internal growth rate=return on asset×dividend ratio

Internal growth rate=15.21%×0.79=12.0159%

Internal growth rate of the company=12.02%

b). Internal growth rate for beginning assets

Return on asset=Net income/total assets at the beginning of the year

Net income=$27,000

Total assets at the beginning of the year=145,000

Return on asset=(27,000/145,000)×100=18.62%

Dividend ratio=1-(dividend payment/net income)=1-(5,800/27,000)

Dividend ratio=1-0.21=0.79

Internal growth rate=return on asset×dividend ratio

Internal growth rate=18.62%×0.79=14.71%

Internal growth rate for beginning of period assets=14.71%

c). Internal growth rate for end of period total assets

Return on asset=Net income/total assets at the beginning of the year

Net income=$27,000

Total assets at the end of the year=210,000

Return on asset=(27,000/210,000)×100=12.86%

Dividend ratio=1-(dividend payment/net income)=1-(5,800/27,000)

Dividend ratio=1-0.21=0.79

Internal growth rate=return on asset×dividend ratio

Internal growth rate=12.86%×0.79=10.16%

Internal growth rate for end of period total assets=10.16%

8 0
3 years ago
When employees at all occupational levels are asked to rank what is important to them, the order that put them in is: sufficient
bazaltina [42]

Explanation:

I don't understand the question. Maybe elaborate more.

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose you are a manager of a firm that operates in a duopoly. Recently, the state attorney general fined you and your competit
postnew [5]

Answer and Explanation:

When there is price fixing between two competitors, if one competitor chooses to fix the price it should not exceed competutors marginal cost and should be above his marginal cost.

Since the price fixing of $10 will be fined then the ideal price to maximize the profit would be below the competitors price $ and above his marginal cost $.

The ideak price to maximize profits would be (competitors price $ + his marginal cost $)/2, This price would be above his marginal cost and below competitors price.

3 0
3 years ago
You purchase a twenty year zero coupon bond with a yield of 5%. One year later you sell the bond at a yield of 4%. What is your
astraxan [27]

Answer:

25.94%

Explanation:

Assume, Face value of bond =$1000

Purchase price of twenty year zero coupon bond = 1000/((1+i)^N) . Where, yield = 5% =0.05 , N= number of years to maturity =20

==> Purchase Price = 1000/(1.05^20)

Purchase Price = 1000/2.65329770514

Purchase Price = $376.89

Selling Price after one year:  1000/(1+I)^19. Where i=yield=4%=0.04, N=19

Selling Price=1000/(1.04^19)

Selling Price = 1000/2.10684917599

Selling Price = $474.64

Rate of Return = (474.64/376.89) - 1

Rate of Return = 1.25935949481281 - 1

Rate of Return = 0.2594

Rate of Return = 25.94%

7 0
3 years ago
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