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nignag [31]
3 years ago
8

In a command economy, the government does not do which of the following?

Business
2 answers:
Gennadij [26K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: answer B

Explanation: APEX

masya89 [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

In a command economy, the government does all of these things except deciding how much consumers buy. The government can definitely influence how much they buy by controlling wages and prices, but ultimately the consumer makes the decision about purchasing.

You might be interested in
If labor productivities were exactly proportional to wage levels internationally, this would A) not negate the logical basis for
Irina18 [472]

Answer:

A)not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model.

Explanation:

Trade can be regarded as basic economic concept which involves the buying as well as selling of goods and services, having a compensation that is been paid by a buyer to a seller.

The Ricardian model can be regarded as model that incorporates the standard assumptions of a perfect competition. This model in it's simplest form give assumption of two countries that are producing two goods, but uses one factor of production, the goods here are usually assumed to be identical, or to be homogeneous, within as well as across countries. It should be noted that when there is higher wage, there will be greater number of workers that are willing to work and vice versa, which defined the relationship between wages and productivity. productivity gives the

measurement of how efficiently labor

is been utilized when producing goods and services.

It should be noted that If labor productivities were exactly proportional to wage levels internationally, this would not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model.

3 0
2 years ago
Tulip Co. owns 100% of Daisy Co.'s outstanding common stock. Tulip's cost of goods sold for the year totals $600,000 and Daisy's
dsp73

Answer:

Amount to be reported as cost of goods sold in the consolidated financial statement = $900,000

Explanation:

When a company holds 100% shares or more than 50% shares of another company that is common stock, they establish a holding subsidiary relationship in which equity method is to be followed.

As per equity method all the cost of goods sold by that of subsidiary is to be added to financial statements of holding while making consolidated financial statements.

In this if there are any sales or purchase between holding and subsidiary then such profit is not be added up till that inventory is further sold to third party.

In case the inventory is sold to third party then entire profit that is inclusive of holding to subsidiary is to be included as part of consolidated financial statements.

Therefore in the above case since Daisy has sold the inventory purchased from Tulip, entire cost of goods sold shall form part of consolidated financial statements.

Here amount to be reported as cost of goods sold in the consolidated financial statement = $600,000 + $400,000 = $1,000,000

Further the cost of goods sold is included 2 times, first in Tulip's account for $60,000 and then the same in Daisy's account for $100,000. In consolidated statement double amount should not be added, thus net cost of goods sold = $1,000,000 - $100,000 = $900,000

6 0
3 years ago
Fundamental analysis shows that stock in Cedar Valley Furniture Corporation has a price that exceeds its present value. Group of
barxatty [35]

Answer:

The correct option is :

This stock is overvalued; you shouldn't consider adding it to your portfolio.

Explanation:

The stocks that are in cedar valley corporation has a price that exceedes its present value from this statement the first given option doesn't justify as the stocks rates are not undervalued.

Now, in the second option its again given that the stock will be overvalued which is true but it should be added to the portfolio is not correct. so, this option is not considered.

In the third option it mentions that stock is overvalued which is the correct option and also that it shouldn't be added in portfolio.

And the last one states that its undervalued which restricts the option at this point only.

So, third option is correct.

5 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2020, American Bank enters into a debt restructuring agreement with Barkley Company, which is now experiencing f
Setler79 [48]

a) Since the debt modification is <u>substantial</u>, more than 10%, the gain to be recorded by Barkley Company, $600,000, will be equal to the loss recorded by American Bank under the debt restructuring.

b) Barkley Company can record a Profit under the term modification above because it is a <u>substantial</u> debt modification, with a gain of $600,000, which is 20% of the original debt.

c. The preparation of the Interest Payment Schedule is as follows:

Period        PV                        PMT             Interest                     FV

1        $2,400,000.00    $621,565.76        $34,262.40        $1,812,696.64

2         $1,812,696.64    $621,565.76        $25,878.06        $1,217,008.93

3         $1,217,008.93    $621,565.76         $17,374.02             $612,817.19

4             $612,817.19    $621,565.76          $8,748.58           $0.00

<h3>What is a debt modification?</h3>

A debt modification is the restructuring of debt to enable the debtor experiencing financial difficulties to regain the financial muscle to settle the restructured debt.

Debt modification can affect the following debt terms:

  • The amounts
  • Timing of interest payments
  • Timing of principal repayment
  • Rate of interest.

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

12% Note Payable = $3,000,000

Revised 10% Note Payable = $2,400,000

Gain on Debt Modification = $600,00

Extended Maturity Period = 4 years

Learn more about debt modifications at brainly.com/question/1490221

5 0
2 years ago
In the past there have been violent protests against the World Bank and the World Trade Organization. The protesters argued that
rjkz [21]

Answer:

1) disagree with the protesters because these practices will help make both rich and poor countries richer.

Explanation:

Free trade and foreign direct investments should make increase the wealth of both poor countries and rich countries. This rarely happens due to one main problem, corruption in poor countries. A lot of people are angry at foreign multinational corporations that have excessive powers on poor countries and they also earn extremely high profits, but it is not only the fault of the multinationals, it is also the fault of the poor countries' leaders.

No corporation can simply go to another country and claim everything for themselves, ti doesn't work like that. Generally corporations have very deep pockets and they simply bribe a president, a secretary of something, a few more people including congressmen and magically they purchase the purchase assets at below market prices. This repeats again and again everywhere around the world, with a very few exceptions.

For example, Ireland was extremely poor and when it joined the European Union it decided to host several multinationals and it has turned into a developed country since then. Chile is another successful story, and it was a dictator that opened Chilean economy to foreign investment.

The problem with most poor countries is that their corrupt leaders benefit themselves and not the country.

6 0
3 years ago
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