Can someone fill out please i am horribly at this thanks in adavance
1 answer:
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Answer:
sin^2(θ)+cos^2(θ)=1
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that the statement above is true because of the Pythagorean identity theorem, which states the aforementioned equation. If you solve the equation for 1 you get the same equation.
To do this first multiply both sides by cos(θ), this gives you (cos^2θ)/1+sinθ = 1-sinθ
Then, multiply both sides by sinθ. This equals cos^θ=1-sin^2θ.
Finally, add sin^2θ to both sides. This equals the final answer of cos^2θ+sin^2θ=1. Which is true.
Answer:
0% probability that at least 1,500 will agree to respond
Step-by-step explanation:
I am going to use the binomial approximation to the normal to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.
Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.
The expected value of the binomial distribution is:
The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:
Normal probability distribution
Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.
In a set with mean and standard deviation
, the zscore of a measure X is given by:
The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.
When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that ,
.
In this problem, we have that:
So
What is the probability that at least 1,500 will agree to respond
This is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 1500-1 = 1499. So
has a pvalue of 1.
1 - 1 = 0
0% probability that at least 1,500 will agree to respond