Answer:
There is no correct answer is these options. But the correct answer is $113.41
Explanation:
The formula to solve this is:
Po = D1/r - g
Po is the Current price of the common stock
D1 is the future dividend payment
r is the rate of return
g is the growth rate.
This is quite different from the usual(single stage). This is Two-stage Dividend Discount Model. To solve this;
D1(Dividend in year 1) is $3.15( $2.42 x 1.3)
D2(Dividend in year 2) is $3.78(3.15 x 1.2)
D3(Dividend in year 3) is $4.15($3.78 x 1.1)
D in subsequent years is $4.36(4.15 x 1.05)
P3(price of stock in year 3) = $4.36/0.083 - 0.05
=$132.12
Now the stock's current market value is
$3.15/1.08 + $3.78/1.08^2 + $4.15/1.08^3 + $132.12^3
The price of the stock is $113.41
Answer:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $6.42 per direct labor hour
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The company's executives estimated that direct labor would be $3,360,000 (240,000 hours at $14/hour) and that factory overhead would be $1,540,000 for the current period.
Using direct labor hours as a base, what was the predetermined overhead rate?
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 1,540,000/240,000= $6.42 per direct labor hour
The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "D. relate to inflation in other countries." Globalization increases the interdependency of the world's countries. Inflation in one country would most likely <span>relate to inflation in other countries.</span>
Here are the following choices:
<span>A. not impact inflation in other countries
B. cause deflation in other countries
c. result in stagflation in other countries
D. relate to inflation in other countries</span>
Answer:
$0
Explanation:
According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.
Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000
Market Value = $53,000
Discounted Value = $51,000
There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.
Answer:
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Selling price per unit $210.00
Variable expense per unit $92.40
Fixed Expense per month $130,536
To calculate the break-even point in units, we need to use the following formula:
Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit
Break-even point in units= 130,536/ (210 - 92.4)
Break-even point in units= 1,110 units
