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KengaRu [80]
3 years ago
10

An investment costs $152,000 and has projected cash inflows of $71,800, $86,900, and −$11,200 for Years 1 to 3, respectively. If

the required rate of return is 15.5 percent, should you accept the investment based solely on the internal rate of return rule? Why or why not?
Business
1 answer:
Anettt [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The project does not increase the value of the company.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

An investment costs $152,000.

Cash inflows:

Year 1= $71,800

Year 2= $86,900

Year 3= −$11,200

The required rate of return is 15.5 percent

<u>To determine whether the investment is convenient or not, we need to calculate the net present value. If the NPV is positive, the project is profitable.</u>

NPV= -Io + ∑[Cf/(1+i)^n]

Cf= cash flow

Year 1= 71,800/1.155= 62,164.50

Year 2= 86,900/1.155^2= 65,141.21

Year 3= -11,200/1.155^3= -7,268.96

NPV= -152,000 + 62,164.50 + 65,141.21 - 7,268.96

NPV= -$31,963.25

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Answer:

1. True

2. False

Explanation:

A perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. Market prices are set by the forces of demand and supply. There are no barriers to entry or exit of firms into the industry.

In the long run, firms earn zero economic profit. If in the short run firms are earning economic profit, in the long run firms would enter into the industry. This would drive economic profit to zero.

Also, if in the short run, firms are earning economic loss, in the long run, firms would exit the industry until economic profit falls to zero.

An example of perfect competition is the market for farm produce.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
During a concealment investigation, an investigator fails to recognize that an invoice had been forged. This represents a: a. no
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Answer:

a. non-sampling risk.

Explanation:

  • A non-sampling risk includes all the audit risk other than the sample risk and is stated as the probability of getting to an incorrect conclusion in the site of having a correct sample. Examples include the  inappropriate audit procedures.
7 0
4 years ago
According to the Mundell–Fleming model, in an economy with flexible exchange rates, expansionary fiscal policy causes net export
maxonik [38]

Answer: Decrease and Increase

Explanation:

According to the Mundell–Fleming model, in an economy with flexible exchange rates, expansionary fiscal policy will cause the net exports to decrease. Expansionary fiscal policy shifts the IS curve rightwards, as a result BOP surplus created in the economy. So, exchange rate decreases to shift the BOP back to its initial position. As a result of lower exchange rate, exports falls. Hence, net exports decreases.

Expansionary Monetary policy will cause the net exports to increases. Expansionary Monetary policy shifts the LM curve rightwards, as a result BOP deficit created in the economy. So, exchange rate increases to shift the BOP back to its initial position. As a result of higher exchange rate, exports increases. Hence, net exports increases.

5 0
3 years ago
"Suppose the government guarantees the price of carbon. At this price, the payoff after 1 year is $120,190 for sure. What is the
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Answer: a. U.S. Treasuries with 1 year to maturity

Explanation:

The Government guaranteed the price of the carbon and the payoff is to be one year later.

The opportunity cost will therefore be a similar Government security to the payoff term of the carbon sale which is 1 year.

The Government security with a similar payoff term is the US Treasury bill with 1 year left till maturity and this will be the opportunity cost because instead of the Government issuing and paying out that security they will instead pay for the carbon.

4 0
3 years ago
A corporation has outstanding $5,000,000 of 9 1/2% 20-year debentures, with a conversion price of $40. If all the debentures wer
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer:

The 125,000 shares of common stock would be issued

Explanation:

For computing how many shares of common stock would be issued, we have to use the formula of common share produced which is shown below:

Common share produced = Par value ÷ Conversion price

where,

Par value is $5,000,000

And, the conversion is $40

Now, apply these values to the above formula

So, the value would be equals to

= $5,000,000 ÷ $40

= 125,000

The time period and rate of debentures is irrelevant, Thus, it is ignored.

Hence, the 125,000 shares of common stock would be issued.

8 0
3 years ago
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