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monitta
3 years ago
12

Suppose that a rise in business confidence has led to more investment in the economy and higher levels of output. In the short-r

un, Keynesian analysis says the rise in aggregate demand will ________ while the neoclassical model predicts ________ in the long-run. g
Business
1 answer:
Shtirlitz [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: Keynesian economic theory

Explanation: Keynesian analysis says the rise in aggregate demand will ___boost growth _____ Keynesians believe consumer demand is the primary driving force in an economy. while the neoclassical model predicts ____looked at labor contracts as sources of wage stickiness to generate equilibrium models of unemployment.____ in the long run.

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7 0
3 years ago
Computing second-year depreciation and accumulated depreciationAt the beginning of 2016, Air Asia purchased a used airplane at a
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

1. a.$4,375,000

  b. $7,500,000

 c. $9,800,000

2. $8,750,000

  $18,200,000

  $17,500,000

Explanation:

1. The computation of the depreciation expense for the second year is presented  below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($40,000,000  - $5,000,000) ÷ (8 years)

= ($35,000,000) ÷ (8 years)  

= $4,375,000

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= One ÷ useful life

= 1 ÷ 8

= 12.5%

Now the rate is double So, 25%

In year 1, the original cost is $40,000,000 so the depreciation is $10,000,000 after applying the 25% depreciation rate

And, in year 2, the $30,000,000 × 25% = $7,500,000

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)  

= ($40,000,000  - $5,000,000) ÷ ($5,000,000 miles)

= ($35,000,000) ÷ ($5,000,000 miles)  

= $7 per miles

In first year, it would be

= Miles in first year × depreciation per miles

= 1,200,000 miles × $7

= $8,400,000

Now for the second year, it would be  

= Miles in second year × depreciation per miles

= 1,400,000 miles × $7

= $9,800,000

2. The calculation of the accumulated depreciation balance would be

Straight line method:

= $4,375,000 + $4,375,000

= $8,750,000

Double-declining balance method:

= $10,000,000 + $7,500,000

= $17,500,000

Units-of-production method:

= $8,400,000 + $9,800,000

=  $18,200,000

4 0
3 years ago
If the margin of safety is 0, then a.the margin of safety cannot be less than or equal to 0; it must be positive. b.the company
sdas [7]

Answer:

d.the company is precisely breaking even.

Explanation:

Margin of safety is referred to current sales - Break even sales ratio to current sales as a percentage.

Basically it is quoted as follows:

\frac{Current\ sales\ -\ Break-even\ Sales}{Current\ Sales} \times 100

Therefore, when the current sales = Break even sales then only the company will have margin of safety = 0

Thus, at 0 margin of safety the company basically is at no profit no loss situation, that is break even.

3 0
3 years ago
5) An advertiser is launching a campaign to educate people on its new products. The products are complex and require more detail
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

The advertiser should optimize the Clicks metric

Explanation:

Remember, we are told that the products are complex and require more detailed explanation than possible in the ads, so it implies improving the clicks metric (number of clicks per user) allows the advertiser to understand whether the users are interested in the ad or web page so as to adjust strategy accordingly.

3 0
3 years ago
The Easy Pack Company includes one coupon having no expiration date with its deluxe snack pack. Upon return of 10 coupons, Easy
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

premium liability (coupon oustanding) $ 1,500

Explanation:

We will recognize a liablity based on expected coupon redemption of 10%:

Sold 1,000,000 deluxe snack = 1,000,000 coupon

from this we expect 10% will be redeem: 1,000,000 x 10% = 100,000

Then, calculate the cost that this coupon will generate:

Thre will be 100,000 redeem coupons which, every 10 is traded for a 1.50 silver chip clip:

100,000 / 10 x $ 1.50 = $ 15,000

For the sales of we have a premium liablity of 15,000

premium expense    15,000

          premium liaiblity            15,000

<u>We also purchase this silver chip clip:</u>

Premium Inventory 15,000

                Cash                   15,000

During the year, we adjust for the chips clips distributed:

9,000 x $ 1.50 = 13,500

This decreases both, the liablity and the premium inventory.

Premium Liability        13,500 debit

            Premium Inventory       13,500 credit

Adjusted year-end balance:

15,000 - 13,500 = 1,500

3 0
3 years ago
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