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Phantasy [73]
4 years ago
10

2. “The inverse of every function must be a function itself.” State whether you agree or disagree with the statement providing e

vidence to support your position.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Readme [11.4K]4 years ago
6 0

A function that is its own inverse is called  a <u>involution. </u>It is not necessary the inverse of every function must be a function itself.”

Step-by-step explanation:

Inverse is a function that reverse itself

Lets ,consider an equation  used to convert temperature in degrees <u>Fahrenheit( F)</u>, to a temperature in degrees <u>Celsius,(C)</u>

C=3/9(F-32)

​But suppose ,we want a equation that did the reverse  that means it converted a temperature in degrees<u> Celsius</u> to a temperature in degrees <u>Fahrenheit</u>. Then we inverse the function as

F=3/9(C+32)

Jet001 [13]4 years ago
3 0
Technically this is not necessarily true for all. A function has each input mapped to one output, therefore there can be two inputs that have the same output. However, when inverted, the input will have two outputs, which is not a function. For example with (1,3) (2,3) (3,4) (4,5) this is a function but switched (3,1) (3,2) ! Two inputs have the same output, which is not a function!
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Okay, take for example:

1+2=3 is the same as 1=3-2

See how we changed the place of the 2. We can do that as long we change + to - and vica versa.

Let's see your example:

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We move the 6 on the other side of the expression with the opposite sign (it is a rule) and we get:

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The answer to your question is

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Answer:

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