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Law Incorporation [45]
3 years ago
13

At an inflation rate of 7 percent, the purchasing power of $3 would be cut in half in 10.25 years. how long to the nearest year

would it take the purchasing power of $9 to be cut to one-fourth if the inflation rate were only 6.5 percent
Business
1 answer:
lyudmila [28]3 years ago
7 0
The applicable formula is;
A = P(1-r)^n

Where;
A = Final purchasing power
P = Current purchasing power
r = inflation
n = Number of years when P changes to A

Confirming the first claim:
A = 1/2P (to be confirmed)
P = $3
r = 7% = 0.07
n = 10.25 years

Using the formula;
A = 3(1-0.07)^10.25 = 3(0.475) ≈ 3(0.5) = $1.5
And therefore, A = 1/2P after 10.25 years.

Now, give;
P = $9
A = 1/4P = $9/4 = $2.25
r = 6.5% = 0.065
n = ? (nearest year).

Substituting;
2.25 = 9(1-0.065)^n
2.25/9 = (1-0.065)^n
0.25 = (1-0.065)^n
ln (0.25)= n ln(1-0.065)
-1.3863 = -0.0672n
n = (-1.3863)/(-0.0672) = 20.63 years

To nearest year;
n = 21 years

Therefore, it would take approximately 21 years fro purchasing power to reduce by 4. That is, from $9 to $2.25.
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Suppose your firm has a marginal revenue given by the equation MR = 10 - Q where Q is the quantity produced and sold. This means
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Answer:

The answer is: A) When the marginal cost of producing an additional unit equals the marginal revenue from that unit.

Explanation:

In economics, we assume that a company´s main goal is to maximize its profit. In order for any company do to this, the marginal cost (MC) of producing an extra unit of production must equal the marginal revenue (MR) obtained by selling that extra unit of production.

Theoretically, in perfect market conditions, MR=MC in the equilibrium point between quantity supplied and quantity demanded. But on real world conditions elasticity of both demand and supply alter the curves.  

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If a business is in need of working capital, one option is to use a(n) ________ that will buy the company's account receivables
vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

factoring company

Explanation:

Factoring companies purchase your company's invoices (account receivables). When they do that, your company promptly receives a cash advance, instead of waiting for the usual 60, 90 day period to receive the full payment amount. Afterward, the factoring company collects the payment from your clients.

All of that is done for a fee to the factoring company (deducted from the full payment amount) and mostly with clients with whom it is normal to have longer payment periods. Factoring is an essential way to get bigger working capital.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A summary of the time tickets for the current month follows:
tester [92]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entry to record the factory labor cost is shown below:

Work in progress  ($2,060 + $1,710 + $3,130 + $3,520 + $2,150 + $1,410 + $9,540) $23,520

Factory Overhead $10,980

         To wages payable  $34,500

(to record the factory labor cost)

Here work in process and factory overhead is debited as it increased the assets and expenses and credited the wages payable as it also increased the liabilities  

8 0
3 years ago
A project has an assigned beta of 1.24, the risk-free rate is 3.8%, and the market rate of return is 9.2%. what is the project's
lianna [129]
<span>the answer for this question is 10.50%</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Simon Software Co. is trying to estimate its optimal capital structure. Right now, Simon has a capital structure that consists o
lidiya [134]

Answer:

14.35%

Explanation:

Simon Software Co

rs= 12%

D/E = 0.25

rRF= 6%

RPM= 5%

Tax rate = 40%.

We are going to find the firm’s current levered beta by using the CAPM formula which is :

rs = rRF+ RPM

12%= 6% + 5%

= 1.2

We are going to find the firm’s unlevered beta by using the Hamada equation:

=bU[1 + (1 −T)(D/E)]

Let plug in the formula

1.2= bU[1 + (0.6)(0.25)]

1.2=(1+0.15)

1.2= 1.15bU

1.2÷1.15

1.0435= bU

We are going to find the new levered beta not the new capital structure using the Hamada equation:

b= bU[1 + (1 −T)(D/E)]

Let plug in the formula

= 1.0435[1 + (0.6)(1)]

=1.0435(1+0.6)

=1.0435(1.6)

= 1.6696

Lastly we are going to find the firm’s new cost of equity given its new beta and the CAPM:

rs= rRF+ RPM(b)

Let plug in the formula

= 6% + 5%(1.6696)

= 14.35%

3 0
3 years ago
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