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Brums [2.3K]
4 years ago
14

Answer This Question Correctly For Brainliest (Wrong Answers Will Be Reported!)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Akimi4 [234]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

see attached

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is 0 divided by 0?
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1

Step-by-step explanation: Theres one 0 in 0

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Bob and Carl each rented the same kind of moving truck from EZ Move. There was a flat rental fee plus a charge per mile that the
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ok so we can turn both of these into equations

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so about 82 cents per mile

Carl: 142.78 divided by 209=0.68315789473

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SOMEONE PLEASEE HELPPP
suter [353]
I believe the answer is the last one
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What is the body weight of a person who requires 173.75 milligrams of medicine?
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Refer to the accompanying technology display. The probabilities in the display were obtained using the values of n equals n=5 an
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

<u><em></em></u>

  • <u><em>Yes, it is reasonable to expect that more than one subject will experience​ headaches</em></u>

Explanation:

Notice that where it says "assume that 55 subjects are randomly selected ..." there is a typo. The correct statement is "assume that 5 subjects are randomly selected ..."

You are given the table with the probability distribution, assuming, correctly, the binomial distribution with n = 5 and p = 0.732.

  • p = 0.732 is the probability of success (an individual experiences headaches).
  • n = 5 is the number of trials (number of subjects in the sample).

The meaning of the table of the distribution probability is:

The probability that 0 subjects experience headaches is 0.0014; the probability that 1 subject experience headaches is 0.0189, and so on.

To answer whether it <em>is reasonable to expect that more than one subject will experience​ headaches</em>, you must find the probability that:

  • X = 2 or X = 3 or X = 4 or X = 5

That is:

  • P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5).

That is also the complement of P(X = 0) or P(X = 1)

  • 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1)

From the table:

  • P(X = 0) = 0.0014
  • P(X = 1) = 0.0189

Hence:

  • 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1) = 1 - 0.0014 - 0.0189 = 0.9797

That is very close to 1; thus, it is highly likely that more than 1 subject will experience headaches.

In conclusion, <em>yes, it is reasonable to expect that more than one subject will experience​ headaches</em>

6 0
3 years ago
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