Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
Please the answer to this question is in the attached file
You can confirm the answer by planning income statement with the calculated amount of unit so that whenever you’re through with the calculation, you must get an income figure of 240000. As the amount of units are in decimal so +/- of small number could be possible like you will get the operating income of 240005 if you put 13077 units .
9%, as the unadjusted rate of return is equal to the average yearly net income growth rate divided by the initial investment's net cost.
<h3>Calculation:</h3>
$40,090 divided by $430,00 is.093 * 100, or 9%.
<h3>If the needed rate of return is 6%, what is the present value of a cash inflow of $2,000 five years from now? Examine later?</h3>
$2600 will be given to the recipient after five years.
<h3>If the internal rate of return is 5% and the desired rate of return is 6%, should management accept the investment opportunity?</h3>
No, as the internal rate of return on the investment is lower than the intended rate of return.
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Answer:
Variable overhead rate variance = $ 875 favorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance = $ 4,185 favorable
Variable overhead cost variance = $5,060 Favorable
Explanation:
Standard hours = 1 hr x 2600 units = 2600 hours
Standard rate = $3.10
Actual hours = 1,250 hours
Actual rate = $2.40
Variable overhead rate variance = ( Standard Rate - Actual Rate ) x Actual Hrs
= ( $ 3.10 - $2.40 ) x 1250 Hrs
= $0.7 x 1250
=$ 875 favorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance = (Standard hours - Actual hours) x Standard Rate
= (2600 - 1250 ) x $ 3.10
= $ 4,185 favorable
Variable overhead spending variance = Variable overhead rate variance + Variable overhead efficiency variance
= $875 + $4,185
= $ 5,060 favorable
Variable overhead cost variance = Standard cost - Actual Cost
= (2600 X 3.10) - (1250 X 2.40) = 8,060 - 3000
= $5,060 Favorable
Answer:
The answer would be, $21,760
Explanation:
The formula to be used is that of calculating the present value (PV) of the payment in the ordinary annuity (PMT). PMT are done annually, semi-annually, quarterly or monthly.
PV = PMT * ((1-(1/ (1+r) n))/r)
Where PV is the present value; PMT is the payment in an ordinary annuity; r is the opportunity cost rate; n is the number of years
in this case, PV= 3,200; r=10%, and n=12
To get PV, substitute the values given above and compute as shown below:
PV = 3,200*((1-(1/(1+0.10)12))/0.10)
PV= $21,760
With an opportunity cost of 10% compounded annually, Lisa will have to deposit $21,760 today if she wants to be receiving $3,200 at the end of each year for the next 12 years.
