Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the percentage of change is as follows;
a. For 2020 to 2021
= (Net income in 2021 - net income is 2020) ÷ (net income in 2020)
= ($473,000 - $503,000) ÷ ($503,000)
= -5.96% decrease
b .For 2021 to 2022
= (Net income in 2022 - net income is 2021) ÷ (net income in 2021)
= ($521,000 - $473,000) ÷ ($473,000)
= 10.15% increase
In this way it is calculated
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Answer:
b) high in rich countries.
Explanation:
Capital-to- labour ratio measure the degree of capitalisation of an economy.
Labour is the service that is given by workers in exchange for salaries in the production process.
Capital is the long term input that is put into the manufacturing process, usually in the form of machinery or systems that automate production.
Capital-to-labour ratio= Total capital/ Total labour
Rich countries have a high level of capitalisation of their production process, where a lot of activity is automated. So capital is high and labour input is low. This results in a high capital-to-labour ratio.
On the other hand poor countries are more labour inensive, so their capital-to-labour ratio is low.
The correct option is B
<u>Explanation:</u>
In an economy, planned investment spending is always equal to planned saving. If actual saving falls short of (exceeds) planned saving, then actual investment falls short of (exceeds) planned investment.
That is the other part of the saving paradox. If an economy produces too much, such that saving is greater than planned investment, inventory will build up, giving signal to producers to reduce output, to restore equilibrium. Such investment scheme is suitable only to communist countries. Keynes has another investment theory in his liquidity story. But investment theories are equally a posterior.
Therefore, Option B is correct