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4 years ago

True/False The Marketing Cloud Connect API user is typically a shared user.

Business

1 answer:

irina [24]4 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The answer is True

Explanation:

Marketing cloud connected to an API is typically a process that makes pushing of marketing data to other department in sales easy.

Before we continue, let us define some terms:

API simply stand for Application Programming Interface

Marketing Cloud is a system that allows for the integration of digital marketing tools into a system such as google analytics, for the purpose of motoring client or customer interaction with a particular product or system.

Cloud: This is the process of using a form of server managed and hosted over the internet to manage and arrange data processing.

Going back to the question, since it is a cloud based system, it is typically a shared user system. so the answer is true.

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A firm with a net income of $30,000 and weighted average actual shares outstanding of 15,000 for the year also had the following

scZoUnD [109]

Answer:

A. $1.70

Explanation:

Available Information:

Actual average number of shares outstanding = 15,000 shares

Total common shares issued on conversion = 2,900 share

First Calculate Weighted average number of shares outstanding using following formula:

Weighted average number of shares outstanding = Actual average number of shares outstanding + Total common shares issued on conversion

Weighted average number of shares outstanding = 15,000 + 2,900

Weighted average number of shares outstanding = 17,900 shares

Now Put all the value in the following formula of Diluted EPS:

Diluted EPS = Net Income - Preferred dividend / Weighted average number of shares outstanding

Diluted EPS = ( $30,000 - $4,500 ) / 15000 shares

Diluted EPS = $25,500 / 15000 shares

Diluted EPS = $1.70 / Share

3 0

4 years ago

At year-end 2016, total assets for Arrington Inc. were $1 million and accounts payable were $410,000. Sales, which in 2016 were

Fudgin [204]

Answer:

$190,000

Explanation:

Given that,

Total assets for Arrington Inc. = $1,000,000

Common Stock = $470,000

Retained earnings = $340,000

Total Liabilities = Total Assets - Common Stock - Retained earnings

= $1,000,000 - $470,000 - $340,000

= $190,000

Therefore, Arrington's total liabilities in 2016 is $190,000.

3 0

4 years ago

Account A pays 13.8% interest per year. Account B pays 13.5% interest per year, compounded monthly. Account C pays 13% interest

alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

1. Future value (FV) = $4,717

2. Future value (FV) = $5,189

3. Future value (FV) = $5,237

Explanation:

Requirement 1

Assume that the present value of the investment is $1,000.

We know, Compounding yearly,

FV = PV*(1 + i)^n

Given,

Present value (PV) = $1,000

Interest rate, i = 13.8% = 0.138

number of periods, n = 12 years

We have to calculate the future value of the investment.

Therefore,

FV = $1,000 × $(1 + 0.138)^{12}$

or, FV = $1,000 × $1.138^{12}$

or, FV = $1,000 × 4.7174

Therefore, Future value (FV) = $4,717

Requirement 2

Again, Assume that the present value of the investment is $1,000.

We know, Compounding monthly,

FV = PV × $(1 + \frac{i}{m})^{m*n}$

Given,

Present value (PV) = $1,000

Interest rate, i = 13.8% = 0.138

number of periods, n = 12 years

compounding period (monthly), m = 12

We have to calculate the future value of the investment.

Therefore,

FV = $1,000 × $(1 + \frac{0.138}{12})^{12*12}$

or, FV = $1,000 × $(1 + 0.0115)^{144}$

or, FV = $1,000 × $1.0115^{144}$

or, FV = $1,000 × 5.1890

Therefore, Future value (FV) = $5,189

Requirement 3

Again, Assume that the present value of the investment is $1,000.

We know, Compounding daily,

FV = PV × $(1 + \frac{i}{m})^{m*n}$

Given,

Present value (PV) = $1,000

Interest rate, i = 13.8% = 0.138

number of periods, n = 12 years

compounding period (daily), m = 365

We have to calculate the future value of the investment.

Therefore,

FV = $1,000 × $(1 + \frac{0.138}{365})^{365*12}$

or, FV = $1,000 × $(1 + 0.000378)^{4,380}$

or, FV = $1,000 × $1.000378^{4380}$

or, FV = $1,000 × 5.2367

Therefore, Future value (FV) = $5,237

4 0

4 years ago

Valli Company uses the percentage of sales method for recording bad debts expense. For the year, cash sales are $700000 and cred

marshall27 [118]

Answer:

Adjusting entry Valli Company will make to record the bad debts expense:

Debit Bad Debts Expense $25,000

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Account $25,000

Explanation:

Valli Company uses the percentage of sales method for recording bad debts expense. Bad debts expense is calculated by using the following formula:

Bad Debts Expense = % Estimated Bad debts × Credit Sales

In Valli, Credit sales are $2,500,000 and % estimated is 1%.

Bad Debts Expense = 1% x $2,500,000 = $25,000

The adjusting entry to record the bad debts expense will be:

Debit Bad Debts Expense $25,000

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Account $25,000

6 0

3 years ago

Ginny is considering an investment costing $55,000 that has cash flows of $35,000 in Year 2, $36,000 in Year 3, and −$5,000 in Y

denis-greek [22]

Answer:

Cumulative cash flows in year 0 = -$55,000

Cumulative cash flows in year 1 = -$55,000

Cumulative cash flows in year 2 = -$55,000 + $35,000 = -$20,000

Cumulative cash flows in year 3 = -$55,000 + 35,000 + $36,000 = $16,000

So, Payback period of three years =2+20000/36000 = 2.5555556 years

Now, as the payback period is less than three years, we should make the investment

However, I do not agree with the decision as payback method does not consider time value of money and ignores all cash flows beyond payback period and hence in this case it is ignoring cash flows in year 4 which is an outflow

NPV=-55000+0/1.08^1+35000/1.08^2+36000/1.08^3-5000/1.08^4=-90.3298767 As NPV is negative, let do not make the investment.

7 0

3 years ago