Answer:
The correct answer is higher than that for the Hungarian project.
Explanation:
The break-even point is defined as that point or level of sales in which the total income is equal to the total costs and, therefore, no accounting profit or loss is generated in the operation. It is a mechanism for determining the point at which sales will exactly cover total costs. The breakeven point is also known as the Cost-Volume-Profit ratio, and emphasizes the different factors that affect profit. The break-even point allows determining the minimum number of units that must be sold or the minimum value of sales to operate without losses. The analysis of the break-even point answers the question related to the decisions that must be made about the planning of the profits of a company or an investment project. In this regard, it is convenient to say that the study of any investment project must include the calculation of the sales levels (either in units or in pesos) that are required for reach operational balance.
Answer:
<em>False</em>
Explanation:
<em>Subprime lending means lending to borrowers and charging interest that is </em><u><em>above</em></u><em> the current prime interest rate. </em>
The <em>current prime interest</em> refers to the rate offered to the best credit rated customers based on their credit history. This rate is lower as it is meant to be an attraction for the customers who are good credit payers and takers.
The <em>sub-prime lending</em> refers to giving loans at a rate higher than current prime interest rate to the borrowers who are lower on credit rating. This lending takes on higher risk and hence thereby charges higher interest from the borrowers.
Answer:
The working capital for 2017 is $15,500
Explanation:
Working capital: It shows a difference between the currents and the current liabilities
In mathematically,
Working Capital = Current Assets - current liabilities
where,
Total current assets = Cash + short-term investments + net accounts receivable + merchandise inventory
= $46,500 + $24,000 + $57,000 + $158,000
= $285,500
And, the current liabilities = Accounts Payable + Salaries Payable
= $133,500 + $17,000
= $150,500
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $285,500 - $150,500
= $15,500
Answer:
X=97.24
Explanation:
PV = Present Value = X+2000 by the 16th years
PMT = Payments = $100
FV = Future Value = 2000 at the end of 16 years
n= number of years
Applying the equation of future value for annuity
FV = pmt* ((1+r)ⁿ - 1
)/r
Inputting the values;
2000=100*((1+r)¹⁶-1)/r
Solving for r, gives r = 2.9%
Therefore using the formula for PV for annuity;
PV=PMT*(1-(1/1+r)/r)
X=100*(1-(1/1.029)/0.029
X=100*((1-0.9718)/0.029)
X=100*(0.0282/0.029)
X=97.24
