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Vadim26 [7]
2 years ago
5

What is the difference between time work and piece work rates​

Business
2 answers:
bearhunter [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

the process by which green plants turn carbon dioxide and water into food using energy from sunlight

Alina [70]2 years ago
7 0
Answer: Time rate system is a method of wage payment to workers based on time spent by them for the production of output. Piece rate system is a method of wage payment to workers based on the quantity of output they have produced.
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After six months with the company, betty's performance was evaluated by a graphic rating form. the ratings for each statement we
erik [133]
The correct answer that would best complete the given statement above would be option 1. objective. Based on the given situation above about how Betty's performance was evaluated, Betty experienced an objective appraisal method. It is objective since it is based on graphic rating forms. Hope this answer helps.
6 0
3 years ago
Harwood Company uses a job-order costing system. Overhead costs are applied to jobs on the basis of machine-hours. At the beginn
NNADVOKAT [17]

Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead:

Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead refers to the balance in the manufacturing overhead control account after the actual overhead costs that were incurred and the applied overhead for the period has been recorded

1 .The appleid overhead is the predetermined rate of $2.40 per machine hour multiplied by the actual number of machine hours (75,000), so it is $180,000.

The applied overhead is debited to work-in-process inventory and credited to the manufacturing overhead account.

2. The underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year is the difference between the actual and applied overhead. We can show it in the T-account like this:

3. The company estimated its total overhead cost to be $192,000 and its total machine hours to be 80,000. The actual overhead cost was $184,000 and the actual machine hours were 75,000. We can see that the main reason why the manufacturing overhead was underapplied was the fact that it worked fewer machine hours than anticipated with a proportional decrease in the manufacturing overhead costs incurred. This is normal because an element of manufacturing overhead is fixed.

To know more about overhead applied manufacturing overhead:

brainly.com/question/14703509

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
On August 2, Jun Co. receives a $7,000, 90-day, 11.5% note from customer Ryan Albany as payment on his $7,000 account. Prepare J
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

Oct 31

Dr Cash $7,201

Cr Notes receivable—R. Albany $7,000

Cr Interest revenue $201

Explanation:

Preparation of Jun's journal entry assuming the note is honored by the customer on October 31, of that same year

Oct 31

Dr Cash $7,201

($7,000+$201)

Cr Notes receivable—R. Albany $7,000

Cr Interest revenue $201

(11.5%*7,000*90/360)

3 0
3 years ago
Some hoodlums who have been earning money by stealing copper pipes and cable and selling them to recyclers are driving around on
icang [17]

Answer:

  • Yes they have
  • 18 U.S. Code § 32 (a) Clause 3

Explanation:

With aviation being such a sensitive field that requires a lot of oversight, Congress enacted rules to punish aviation crimes which means that such crimes fall under Federal jurisdiction and as this crime is a crime against an aviation facility, it is a Federal crime.

The crime in question here falls under <em>US. Code 32 - Destruction of aircraft or aircraft facilities under subsection (a)3</em> which talks about damaging an air navigation facility and how this can endanger the safety of flights en route.

Their punishment would be either a fine, imprisonment of not more than five years or both.

4 0
3 years ago
The following costs and useful life data are associated with two new machines being considered at Arun Tech Inc.
Sidana [21]

Answer:

Machine B has a higher NPV therefore should be produced

Explanation:

The machine with the higher Net Present Value (NPV) should be produced .

NPV of Machine A

PV of cash flow

PV of annual profit = A × (1- (1+r)^*(-n)/r

A- 92,000, n- 11, r- 12%

PV = 92,000 × (1- (1.12^(-11)/0.12 = 546268.32

PV of salvage value = 13,000× 1.12^(-11)= 3737.189

NPV =  546268.320 + 3737.189  -250,000 = $300,005.50

NPV of Machine B

A- 103,00, n- 19, r- 12%

PV = 103,000 × (1- (1.12^(-19)/0.12= 758675.0165

Pv of salvage value = 26000× 1.12^(-19)= 3018.776199

NPV =758675.0165  + 3018.77  -460,000 = $301,693.79

Machine B has a higher NPV , therefore should be produced.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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