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BaLLatris [955]
3 years ago
15

Why is it necessary to have a time-phased budget baseline? Select one: a. It allows proper resource allocation b. It reduces sch

edule slippage when scheduling multiproject resources c. It reduces fluctuations in cash flow during the project d. It shows how much work was accomplished for the money spent e. It is not necessary to have a time-phased budget baseline
Business
1 answer:
natulia [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:D. It shows how much work was accomplished for the money spent

Explanation:

Time phased budget is an approved plan of how much work should be accomplished at stated time on the money spent on a project

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Maria, a certified financial planner, must also be a licensed attorney to be appointed Trustee of a bankruptcy estate. A. True B
seropon [69]

Answer: False

Explanation:

Bankruptcy Trustees are usually lawyers and this is why people think that they must always be lawyers but this is not the case.

The United States Trustee who is an officer of the Department of Justice and the one in charge of appointing Bankruptcy Trustees, can appoint a person other than a licensed attorney to be the representative of an estate for bankruptcy related matters (trustee) such as accountants or financial planners.

6 0
3 years ago
Sharp Company manufactures a product for which the following standards have been set: Standard Quantity or Hours Standard Price
ohaa [14]

Answer:

Direct labor cost = $51450

Direct labor hours 4677.27

Direct labor per hour 1.46

Explanation:

Sharp Company

Given Data

Standard Quantity or Hours Standard Price or Rate Standard Cost

Direct materials 3 feet $ 11 per foot $ 33

Direct labor ? hours ? per hour ?

Materials quantity variance $ 4,400 U

Labor spending variance $ 450 F

Labor efficiency variance $ 2,000 U

1.a.  The Actual Cost per foot of materials for March=$111,300/10000=$ 11.13

Materials quantity variance $ 4,400 U =(Standard Price * Actual Quantity)-(Standard Price * Standard Quantity)

$ 4,400 U = 11* AQ- 11*3 feet*3200

$ 4400= 11* AQ- 105600

$ 4400+ $105600=  11* AQ

AQ =110000/11= 10,000

b. Materials price variance = Actual Price *Actual Quantity - Standard Price * Actual Quantity

Materials price variance =Actual Price *Actual Quantity - Standard Price * Actual Quantity  

Materials price variance =$ 11.13* 10000- 11*10000

Materials price variance=$111,300-110000=1300 Unfavorable

Spending variance= Purchase Price Variance + Materials quantity variance

Spending variance= 1300 Unfavorable + $ 4,400 U= 5700 Unfavorable

2.  Labor spending variance $ 450 F =Labor efficiency variance $ 2,000 U+Direct Labor rate per hour

a. Direct Labor rate per hour =Labor efficiency variance + Labor spending variance =$ 2,000 +$ 450 =$ 2450 Unfav

Direct Labor rate per hour =(actual hours* actual rate)- (actual hours * standard rate)

Direct labor time variance= (actual hours* standard rate)- (standard hours * standard rate)

$ 2450 Unfav= 4900*11- standard hours * 11

standard hours *11= 53900- 2450= 51450

b. Standard Hours= 51450/11= 4677.27

c. Standard Hours per unit of product=  4677.27/3200= 1.46

Actual Hours= 4900/3200= 1.53125

4 0
3 years ago
Chen runs a consulting firm that provides strategies to companies that are into space exploration. What type of business does Ch
vekshin1
Because it proved legal aids it would be service
3 0
3 years ago
Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Alguien tiene un libro que me pueda compartir con relación a la temática de ¨Rendimiento y riesgo financiero¨ por favor lo ocupo
Amanda [17]

Te recomiendo el siguiente libro que te puede ayudar.

"La Sabiduría de las Finanzas. Descubre el lado humano en el mundo del riesgo y del rendimiento." El autor es Mihir A. Desai.  Hay otro que te puede servir que se llama "El Pequeño Libro de los Altos Rendimientos con Bajo Riesgo. El autor es "Pim Van Vliet. Ambos hablan del los riesgos de las inversiones y los rendimientos en un mundo volátil.

La otra opción es que busques otros libros de Administración y Finanzas en donde venga el subtema de riesgos y rendimientos, aunque podrían no estar tan completos como el desarrollo que le dan al tema en los libros mencionados.

3 0
3 years ago
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