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Oduvanchick [21]
3 years ago
15

On September 1, 2018, Evansville Lumber Company issued $80 million in 20-year, 10 percent bonds payable. Interest is payable sem

iannually on March 1 and September 1. Bond discounts and premiums are amortized at each interest payment date and at year-end. g The company’s fiscal year ends at December 31.
Required:
A-1. Prepare the necessary adjusting entries at December 31, 2018, and the journal entry to record the payment of bond interest on March 1, 2019, under the assumption that the bonds were issued at 98.
A-2. Prepare the necessary adjusting entries at December 31, 2018, and the journal entry to record the payment of bond interest on March 1, 2019, under the assumption that the bonds were issued at 101.
B. Compute the net bond liability at December 31, 2019, under assumptions A-1 and A-2 above.
C. Under which of these assumptions, 1 or 2, would the investor's effective rate of interest be higher? Explain.
Business
1 answer:
Veseljchak [2.6K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<em><u>A-1</u></em>

interest payable   2,693,334 debit

     Interest payable            2,666,667 credit

     discount on bond payable 26,667 credit

--to record Dec 31st adjusting entry--

interest expense  1,346,666 debit

interest payable  2,666,667 debit

               discount on bond payable       13,333 credit

              cash                                     4,000,000  credit

--to record March 1st Payment

<em><u>A-2</u></em>

interest expense    2,653,334 debit

premium on bond payable 13,333 debit

     Interest payable              2,666,667 credit

--to record Dec 31st adjusting entry--

interest expense   1.326.666 debit

interest payable    2,666,667 debit

premium on bond payable 6,667 debit

              cash                                     4,000,000  credit

--to record March 1st Payment

B)

A-1

78,400,000 + 26,667 = 78,426,667

A-2

80,800,000 - 13,333 = 80,786,667

C)

the effective interest rate is higher under A-1 as the company is paying the same nominal amount of $4,000,000 every six months but, received less cash for the bonds in A-1 case making the effective rate higher .

Explanation:

A-1 issued at 98 points

cash received:

80,000,000 x 98/100 = 78,400,000

discount on bonds: 80,000,000 - 78,400,000 = 1,600,000

On Dec 31st we solve for accrued discoutn and interest:

amortization

1,600,000 / 40 payment = 40,000 per payment

proportional amortization: 40,000 x 4/6 (month accrued) = 26,667

<em><u>interest paid</u></em>

principal x rate x time

80,000,000 x 10% x 4/12 = 2,666,667

payment:

8,000,000 x 10% x 6/12 = 4,000,000

proportional amortization: 40,000 x 2/6 (month accrued) = 13,333

accrued interest 8,000,000 x 10% x 2/12 = 1,333,333

A-2  we issue a 101 point

cash received:

80,000,000 x 101/100 = 80,800,000

premuim on bonds: 800,000

On Dec 31st we solve for accrued discount and interest:

amortization

800,000 / 40 payment = 20,000 per payment

proportional amortization: 20,000 x 4/6 (month accrued) = 13,333

<em><u>interest paid</u></em>

principal x rate x time

80,000,000 x 10% x 4/12 = 2,666,667

payment:

8,000,000 x 10% x 6/12 = 4,000,000

proportional amortization: 40,000 x 2/6 (month accrued) = 6,667

accrued interest 8,000,000 x 10% x 2/12 = 1,333,333

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<u>Answer: </u>

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7 0
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A project has cash flows of −$161,900, $60,800, $62,300, and $75,000 for Years 0 to 3, respectively. The required rate of return
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Therefore, the internal rate of return is lower than the expected return, for this the project must be rejected

Explanation:

Solution

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Internal rate of return = Value of present inflows = Value of present outflows

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Answer:

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