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natka813 [3]
3 years ago
12

A company purchased a 3-acre tract of land for a building site for $480,000. The company demolished the old building at a cost o

f $25,000, but was able to sell scrap from the building for $2,800. The cost of title transfer was $1,550 and attorney fees for reviewing the contract was $760. Property taxes paid were $9,500, of which $900 covered the period after the purchase date. The capitalized cost of the land is: Multiple Choice $514,860. $514,610. $513,110. $379,610.
Business
1 answer:
dedylja [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$513,110

Explanation:

The computation of the cost of the land is shown below:

= Purchase tract of land + demolished cost of old building - scrap of the building + title transfer cost + attorney fees + property taxes - amount covered the period

= $480,000 + $25,000 - $2,800 + $1,550 + $760 + $9,500 - $900

= $513,110

We simply applied the above formula

You might be interested in
Operating leverage is easier to control and manage than financial leverage because operating leverage deals with the internal wo
zzz [600]

Answer: FALSE

               

Explanation: In simple words, operating leverage refers to the criteria which shows how much operating income can be increase by increasing the revenue of a project. Whereas, financial leverage refers to the level of debt that a firm has acquired for financing its operations.

The management of a company can easily control financial leverage as it is in their hands to issue or redeem debt. On the other hand, increase or decrease in operating income is dependent on various external factor.

Hence the given statement is false.

7 0
3 years ago
Plum Corporation began the month of May with $1,400,000 of current assets, a current ratio of 1.90:1, and an acid-test ratio of
matrenka [14]

Answer:

Plum Corporation

(1) current ratio = Current assets/current liabilities

(2) acid-test ratio = (Current asset -Inventory)/Current liabilities

(3) working capital = Current assets minus Current liabilities

(4) acid-test assets = quick assets

May 2 Purchased $75,000 of merchandise inventory on credit.

Current Assets:   $1,400,000 + $75,000 = $1,475,000

Current Liabilities: $737,000 + $75,000 = $812,000

Inventory: $147,000 +$75,000 = $222,000

(1) current ratio = $1,475,000/$812,000

= 1.82:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,475,000 - $222,000/$812,000

= 1.54:1

(3) working capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

= $1,475,000 - $812,000

= $663,000

May 8 Sold merchandise inventory that cost $55,000 for $150,000 cash.

Current Assets: $1,475,000 -55,000 + 150,000 = $1,570,000

Current Liabilities: $812,000

Inventory: $222,000 - 55,000 = $167,000

Quick Assets = $1,570,000 - 167,000 = $1,403,000

(1) current ratio = $1,570,000/$812,000

= 1.93

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,403,000/$812,000

= 1.73

(3) working capital = $1,570,000 - $812,000

= $758,000

May 10 Collected $26,000 cash on an account receivable.

Current Assets: $1,570,000 ($26,000 - $26,000) = $1,570,000

Current Liabilities: $812,000

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,570,000 - 167,000 = $1,403,000

(1) current ratio = $1,570,000/$812,000

= 1.93

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,403,000/$812,000

= 1.73

(3) working capital = $1,570,000 - $812,000

= $758,000

May 15 Paid $29,500 cash to settle an account payable.

Current Assets: $1,570,000 - $29,500 = $1,540,500

Current Liabilities: $812,000 - $29,500 = $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,540,500 - 167,000 = $1,373,500

(1) current ratio = $1,540,500/$782,500

= 1.97:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,373,500/$782,500

= 1.76:1

(3) working capital = $1,540,500 - $782,500

= $758,000

May 17 Wrote off a $5,000 bad debt against the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account.

Current Assets: $1,540,500 - $5,000 = $1,535,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,535,500 - 167,000 = $1,368,500

(1) current ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= 1.96:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= $1.96:1

(3) working capital = $1,535,500 - $782,500

=$753,000

May 22 Declared a $1 per share cash dividend on its 69,000 shares of outstanding common stock.

Current Assets: $1,535,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,535,500 - 167,000 = $1,368,500

(1) current ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= 1.96:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,535,500/$782,500

= $1.96:1

(3) working capital = $1,535,500 - $782,500

=$753,000

May 26 Paid the dividend declared on May 22.

Current Assets: $1,535,500 -$69,000 = $1,466,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,466,500 - 167,000 = $1,299,500

(1) current ratio = $1,466,500/$782,500

= 1.87:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,299,500/$782,500

= 1.66:1

(3) working capital = $1,466,500 - $782,500

= $684,000

May 27 Borrowed $120,000 cash by giving the bank a 30-day, 10% note.

Current Assets: $1,466,500 + $120,000 = $1,586,500

Current Liabilities: $782,500 + $120,000 = $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,586,500 - 167,000 = $1,419,500

(1) current ratio = $1,586,500/$902,500

= 1.76

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,419,500/$902,500

= 1.57

(3) working capital = $1,586,500 - $902,500

= $684,000

May 28 Borrowed $135,000 cash by signing a long-term secured note.

Current Assets: $1,586,500 + $135,000= $1,721,500

Current Liabilities: $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,721,500 - 167,000 = $1,554,500

(1) current ratio = $1,721,500/$902,500

= 1.91:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,554,500/$902,500

= 1.72

(3) working capital = $1,721,500 - $902,500

= $819,000

May 29 Used the $255,000 cash proceeds from the notes to buy new machinery.

Current Assets:  $1,721,500 - $255,000 = $1,466,500

Current Liabilities: $902,500

Inventory: 167,000

Quick Assets = $1,466,500 - 167,000 = $1,299,500

(1) current ratio = $1,466,500/$902,500

= 1.62:1

(2) acid-test ratio = $1,299,500/$902,500

= 1.44:1

(3) working capital = $1,466,500 - $902,500

= $564,000

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

May 1, Current Assets = $1,400,000

Ratio of current assets to current liabilities = 1.90:1

Acid -test ratio = 1.70:1

Therefore, current liabilities = $1,400,000/1.9 = $737,000

Current Assets minus Inventory/$737,000 = 1.7

Therefore, current assets minus inventory = $737,000 * 1.7 = 1,253,000

Inventory = Current Assets - (Current assets -inventory)

= $1,400,000 - $1,253,000

= $147,000

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Regina Henry deposited $20,000 in a money market certificates that provides interest of 10% compound and quarterly if the amount
Andrews [41]

Answer:

Regina: Final amount=$62,769

Will Smith: Present value:  $213,216

Explanation:

Regina:

Compound quarterly means that each quarter of the year ( every three months) she will receive a 10% interest rate of her deposit. To convert this periodic rate to an annual rate( because the problem ask you about years) you use this formula :

Annual rate= ((1+Periodic rate)^(# periods))-1

In this case the number of periods means the number of quarters a year have, which is 4

Annual rate= ((1+10%)^(4))-1= 46.41%

To find the final amount Regina has after 3 year we use this formula:

Final Capital (FC)= Initial Capital (IC)*[(1+interest(i))]^(number of periods(n))

FC= $20,000*[(1+46.41%)^3]

FC=$62,769 I attached an excel figure which shows a more detailed data.

Will Smith

Semiannually means that every 6 months Will Smith will receive a 12% interest rate of the initial investment. To convert this periodic rate to an annual rate you use the same above formula:

Annual rate= ((1+Periodic rate)^(# periods))-1

In each year Will will receive twice the interest rate over the initial investment

Annual rate = ((1+12%)^(2))-1

Annual rate= 25.44%

The present value of $80,000 from now to 5 years is calculated using the formula attached, but I used Excel. First you have to copy all the cash flows of the 5 years. Then, you set the interest rate that in this case is the one that you found above( 25.44%). Finally you use the financial formula "NPV" in this way:

"=NPV(25.44%;C4:C8)" I used C4:C8 because in those excel cells i copied the cash flows.

I got that the present value of this amount is $213,216

5 0
4 years ago
Ashton, an appraiser, is estimating value using the sales comparison approach. He applies more weight to two comparables over se
alexandr402 [8]

When Ashton, the appraiser applies more weight to two comparables over several others he used, he is utilizing the: Correlation method.

<h3>What is the Correlation Method?</h3>

The correlation method is the method utilized in the sales comparison approach where more importance is given to two properties being compared against some others.

The sales comparison approach itself is used in analyzing the worth of a property by comparing it to others that have been sold in recent times.

Learn more about the sales comparison approach here:

brainly.com/question/14497595

6 0
2 years ago
Meenach Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-ho
o-na [289]

Answer:

Fixed overhead application rate

= <u>Budgeted fixed overhead</u>

  Budgeted direct labour hours

= <u>$114,000</u>

  60,000 hrs

= $1.90 per direct labour hour

Amount of overhead applied to job X387:     $

Variable overhead $4.90 x 170 hours         = 833

Fixed overhead $1.90 x 170 hours               = 323

                                                                            1,156

                                                           

Explanation:

In this case, there is need to calculate the fixed overhead application rate based on direct labour hours by dividing the the budgeted fixed overhead by budgeted direct labour hours. Then, we will calculate the overhead applied to Job X387 by multiplying the fixed and variable application rate by actual direct labour hours of 170 hours.

7 0
3 years ago
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