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belka [17]
3 years ago
9

At December 31, Amy Jo's Appliances had account balances in Accounts Receivable of $302,000 and in Allowance for Uncollectible A

ccounts of $640 (credit) before any adjustments. An analysis of Amy Jo's December 31 accounts receivable suggests that the allowance for uncollectible accounts should be 5% of accounts receivable. Bad debt expense for the year should be:
Business
1 answer:
Lunna [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$870

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Allowance for uncollectible accounts at 5%

= 5% * $302,000

= $1,510

Since the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts was $640 (credit) before any adjustments, the bad debt expense for the year

= $1,510 - $640

= $870

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When bonds are sold at a premium and the effective interest method is used, at each interest payment date, the interest expense:
Alex73 [517]

Answer:

decreases

Explanation:

When bonds are sold at a premium, it is sold at a price higher than the par value. For example, if the par value is $100, the bond would be selling at a premium if it is sold at $101. At expiration of the bond's tenor, the price of the bond must equal its par value, so at each each interest payment day, the interest expense decreases

3 0
3 years ago
A potential investor is seeking to invest $500,000 in a venture, which currently has 1,000,000 million shares held by its founde
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

a, 15%

b, 150,000

c, $ 3.30

d, = $3,333,333.33

e, $3,833,333.33

Explanation:

To solve this,

Note that we have been given a similar venture to compare to our venture.

The total shareholder's equity for the other venture (P) = $10,000,000 and the net income (E) = $1,000,000

Hence, Price/Earnings (P/E) for other venture = 10,000,000/1,000,000 = 10.0

Now for our venture, Earnings in the 5th year = $500,000

Assuming that P/E ratio for both the ventures to be equal, P/500,000 = 10.0

hence, total shareholder's value for our venture = $5,000,000 --------------- (1)

Now the investor invested $500,000 and expected 50% return after 5 years, hence the investor's value after 5 years would be equal to 500,000 * (1+50%) = $750,000 --------------- (2)

Now percent ownership of venture given to investor = (Value of investor's investment after 5 years/total value of all shareholders after 5 years)

Hence, divide (2) by (1)

percent ownership of venture given to investor = 750,000/5,000,000 = 0.15

or 15%

Therefore Answer to part 'a' is = 15%

Part (b) :For the percentage ownership given to new investor = 15%, total number of shares = 1,000,000

Hence, number of shares issued to new investor = 15% x 1,000,000 = 150,000

Hence, answer to part b = 150,000

Part (c): Amount invested by new investor = $500,000 and number of shares issued to him = 150,000

hence issue price of share = Amount invested / Number of shares issued

= 500,000/150,000 = $3.33

Hence, issue price per share = $3.33

Part (d):

The Pre money valuation is the value of the company before any external funding. In this case, the number of shares held with the founders before the new investor = 1,000,000 and the equity price = $3.33

hence, Value of the venture = 3.33 * 1,000,000 = $3,333,333.33

Hence, pre money valuation of the venture = $3,333,333.33

Part (e): Post money valuation of a company is the value of the company after external funding. In this case, investor invests $500,000 to the venture increasing the value of the company by the same amount.

Hence post money valuation = pre money valuation + Investment

= 3,333,333.33 + 500,000

= 3,833,333.33

Hence, post-money valuation of the venture = $3,833,333.33

7 0
3 years ago
Has your idea of yourself five years from now changed in any way since beginning this course? If so, describe the reasons. If no
sesenic [268]

Answer:

This is a personal question man

Explanation:

Im sorry, but I can't answer personal questions

Sorry

6 0
3 years ago
What is it called when any amount of money is debited (subtracted) from the checking account?
blsea [12.9K]
That is called withdrawal, glad to help!
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3 0
3 years ago
the weighted moving average forecasting model uses a weighting scheme to modify the effects of individual data points. this is i
solniwko [45]

The weighted transferring common forecasting version makes use of a weighting scheme to alter the results of person facts points. that is its primary gain over the easy transferring common version. the weighted transferring common forecasting version makes use of a weighting scheme to alter the results of person facts points. that is its primary gain over the easy transferring common version is true.

Forecasts produced the usage of exponential smoothing strategies are weighted averages of past observations, with the weights decaying exponentially due to the fact the observations get older. In one-of-a-kind words, the more ultra-modern the declaration the higher the associated weight.

Quantitative forecasts lease one or more mathematical models that rely upon historical information and/or casual variables to forecast demand.  Qualitative forecasts include such factors due to the fact the choice maker's intuition, emotions, private experiences, and rate system.

Learn more about Quantitative forecasts here:
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7 0
1 year ago
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