Answer:
0.125
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: the answer is D
Step-by-step explanation: may i please have brainliest.
Answer:
is A
Step-by-step explanation:
Negative 2.5, 1 and three-fourths, 50 percent, 1.5
Pls Mark Brainliest
Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333