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geniusboy [140]
3 years ago
14

Which sentence describes the correct use of flexible spending account (FSA) funds?

Mathematics
1 answer:
mr_godi [17]3 years ago
6 0

The funds in the account remain for as long as you’re employed by the company sponsoring the FSA.

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Solve the system of equations 5x-2y=88 3x+4y=58 show all work
diamong [38]
The given equations are:

5x - 2y = 88
3x + 4y =  58

Multiplying the 1st equation by 2, we get the new set of equations as:

10x - 4y = 176
3x + 4y = 58

Adding the two equations, we get:

10x - 4y + 3x + 4y = 176 + 58
13x =234
x =  18

Using the value of x in 1st equation, we get:

5(18) - 2y = 88
- 2y = 88 -5(18)
-2y = -2
y = 1

So, the solution of the equation is (18, 1)

6 0
3 years ago
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You need to fertilize 0.35 acres of land. the fertilizer is spread by the square yard .how many square yards of land do you have
Otrada [13]
The answer is C, 1694
8 0
3 years ago
Sarah took the advertising department from her company on a round trip to meet with a potential client. Including Sarah a total
dimulka [17.4K]
You can set up a system of equations for this problem. x= number of coach tickets and y = number of first class tickets.

$210x + $1200y = $10,230 (cost of coach ticket plus cost of first class tickets is total budget)

x + y = 11 (number of coach tickets plus number of first class tickets is total number of people)

Solve the second equation for y to get y = 11 - x, then plug that into the first equation and solve for x:

$210x + $1200(11 - x) = $10,230

$210x + $13,200 - $1200x = $10,230

-$990x + $13,200 = $10,230

-$990x = $2,970

x = 3


Sarah bought x = 3 coach tickets. Plug that into the second equation and solve for y:

3 + y = 11

y = 8


Sarah bought y = 8 first class tickets.
6 0
3 years ago
The variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :
aliina [53]

Answer: d. np(1 - p).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be any binomial variable which represents the number of success such that X\sim B(n, p) , where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .

Then, the mean E(x) and the variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :

E(x)=\mu=np

Var (x)=\sigma^2=np(1-p)

where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .

Therefore , the correct option is option d. np(1 - p) .

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following numbers is closest to 1?
Mademuasel [1]
D------------------------
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3 years ago
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