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kozerog [31]
3 years ago
11

11+2x=x+4 whoever answered can you show the work?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vladimir [108]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

x= -7

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

2x+11=x+4

Step 2: Subtract x from both sides.

2x+11−x=x+4−x

x+11=4

Step 3: Subtract 11 from both sides.

x+11−11=4−11

x=−7

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Draw a model to represent the problem 1/2 divided by 2/8
Vlad [161]
The answer is 2 because 2/8+ 1/4 and 1/4 goes into 1/2 twice because 1/4 times 2 equals 2/4 and 2/4= 1/2.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If f(x)=2x-6 and g(x)=x^3 what is (g f)(0)
kow [346]
<h2>Hello!</h2>

The answer is:

(g\circ f)(0)=-216

<h2>Why?</h2>

To composite functions, we need to evaluate functions in another function(s), for example:

Given f(x) and g(x), if we want to calculate f(x) composite g(x), we need to evaluate g(x) into f(x).

So, we are given the functions:

f(x)=2x-6\\g(x)=x^{3}

And we are asked to calculate g(x) composite f(x), and then evaluate "x" to 0, so, calculating we have:

(g\circ f)(x)=g(f(x))\\\\(g\circ f)(x)=(2x-6)^{3}

Now that we have the composite function, we need to evaluate "x" equal to 0, so:

(g\circ f)(0)=(2x-6)^{3}\\\\(g\circ f)(0)=(2*(0)-6)^{3}=(0-6)^{3}=-6*-6*-6=-216

Hence, we have that:

(g\circ f)(0)=-216

Have a nice day!

6 0
4 years ago
A batch of 40 parts contains six defects. If two parts are drawn randomly one at a time without replacement, what is the probabi
adell [148]

Answer:

a) Therefore, the probability is P=1/52.

b) Therefore, the probability is P=9/400.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that a  batch of 40 parts contains six defects.

a) We calculate the probability that the both parts are defective, if two parts are drawn randomly one at a time without replacement.

The probability for the first is 6/40.

The probability for the second is 5/39.  

We get:

P=\frac{6}{40}\cdot \frac{5}{39}\\\\P=\frac{1}{52}

Therefore, the probability is P=1/52.

b) We calculate the probability that the both parts are defective, if two parts are drawn randomly one at a time with replacement.

The probability for the first is 6/40.

The probability for the second is 6/40.  

We get:

P=\frac{6}{40}\cdot \frac{6}{40}\\\\P=\frac{9}{400}

Therefore, the probability is P=9/400.

6 0
3 years ago
What is the solution to the inequality 13 x + 3 &lt; 42 ?
zepelin [54]

Answer:

x < -15

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the solution:

-3x-42 > 3

Add the numbers

-3x > 45

Divide both sides of the inequation by -3 and flip the inequality sign.

x < -15

6 0
3 years ago
HELP!!!
o-na [289]
14 and 35 both divisible by 7
,14 and 91 both divisible by 7
14 and 38 both divisible by 3

answer is 14 and 81
4 0
3 years ago
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