Answer:
The correct answer is -
a) 1/16
b) 1/64
c) 1/32
Explanation:
According to the law of independent assortment, each allele of a particular gene has equal chances of getting inherited into the gametes.
In a Mendelian cross of Aa x Aa would give;
AA = 1/4,
Aa = 2/4 and
aa = 1/4
The result of the cross between AaBb x AaBb would be 1/16 due to the fact that probability is still the same AA = 1/4, BB = 1/4 therefore, AABB = 1/16 = 1/4× 1/4.
Now based on this crossing the following:
AaBbCCDd x AabbCcDd.
Take each allele as individual
Aa x Aa would give; AA = 1/4, Aa = 2/4 and aa = 1/4
Bb x bb would give; BB = 1/2, bb = 1/2
CC x Cc would give; CC = 1/2, Cc = 1/2
Dd x Dd would give; DD = 1/4, Dd = 2/4 and dd = 1/4
Then the probability of progeny of the following would be:
a) the probability of AaBbCcDd = 2/4 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 2/4 = 1/16
b) the probability of aabbCCdd = 1/4 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/4 = 1/64
c) the probability of AabbCcDD = 2/4 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/4 = 1/32
