Answer:
LOL IT'S GONNA BE 80%
Step-by-step explanation:
HOPE THIS HELPS, SORRY FOR ALL THE CAPS
4,000
I know this because 2,000 • 2 = 4,000
![\frac{2x}{4 \pi } + \frac{1-x}{2} =0 \\ \frac{x}{2 \pi } + \frac{1-x}{2} = 0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B2x%7D%7B4%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1-x%7D%7B2%7D%20%3D0%20%5C%5C%20%0A%20%5Cfrac%7Bx%7D%7B2%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1-x%7D%7B2%7D%20%3D%200)
Then we will multiply both sides of the equation by 2 π :
x + π ( 1 - x ) = 0
x + π - π x = 0
x ( 1 - π ) = - π / · ( - 1 )
x ( π - 1 ) = π
x = π / ( π - 1 )
Step-by-step explanation:
y-y1 = m(x-x1) is the equation for a linear line in y=mx+b (slope intercept)
slope = m = -5/8
x1 = -14
y1 = 6
y-6 = -5/8 (x--14)
y-6 = -5/8 (x+14)
y-6 = -5/8x-70/8
y-48/8= -5/8x-70/8
y = -5/8x - 22/8
When x = 0, y = -22/8, which makes (0, -22/8) your y intercept