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3 years ago

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A car is traveling at 7.1m/s accelerates 4.3 m/s^2 to reach a speed of 16.0 m/s how long does it take for this acceleration to o

ccur

1 answer:

Bond [772]3 years ago

4 0

<u>Answer</u>

2.06977 seconds

<u>Explanation</u>

Acceleration, a, is the rate of change of velocity

a = (v-u)/t

where v and u are final and initial velocities respectively.

4.3 = (16.0 - 7.1)/t

4.3 = 8.9/t

t = 8.9/4.3

= 2.06977 seconds

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A small block of mass 20.0 grams is moving to the right on a horizontal frictionless surface with a speed of 0.68 m/s. The block

Usimov [2.4K]

Answer:

a) $v'=-0.227\ m.s^{-1}$

b) $v=1.36\ m.s^{-1}$

Explanation:

Given:

mass of the lighter block, $m'=0.02\kg$

velocity of the lighter block, $u'=0.68\ m.s^{-1}$

mass of the heavier block, $m=0.04\ kg$

velocity of the heavier block, $u=0\ m.s^{-1}$

a)

Using conservation of linear momentum:

$m'.u'+m.u=m'.v'+m.v$

where:

$v'=$ final velocity of the lighter block

$v=$ final velocity of the heavier block

$m'.u'=m'.v'+m.v$

$m'(u'-v')=m.v$ ........................(1)

Since kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collision:

$\frac{1}{2}m'.u'^2=\frac{1}{2}m'.v'^2+\frac{1}{2}m.v^2$

$m'(u'^2-v'^2)=m.v^2$

$m'(u'-v')(u'+v')= m.v^2$

divide the above equation by eq. (1)

$v=u'+v'$ .............................(2)

now we substitute the value of v from eq. (2) in eq. (1)

$m'(u'-v')=m(u'+v')$

$\frac{m'+m}{m'-m} =\frac{u'}{v'}$

$\frac{0.02+0.04}{0.02-0.04} =\frac{0.68}{v'}$

$v'=-0.227\ m.s^{-1}$ (negative sign denotes that the direction is towards left)

b)

now we substitute the value of v' from eq. (2) in eq. (1)

$m'(u'-v+u')=m.v$

$2m'.u'=(m-m')v$

$2\times 0.02\times 0.68=(0.04-0.02)\times v$

$v=1.36\ m.s^{-1}$

6 0

3 years ago

Convert 800 cm to meters.

Rasek [7]

Answer:8 meters

Explanation:100cm is a meter

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An object weighs 63.8 N in air. When it is suspended from a force scale and completely immersed in water the scale reads 16.8 N.

I am Lyosha [343]

Answer:

The density of this object is approximately $1.36\; {\rm kg \cdot L^{-1}}$ .

The density of the oil in this question is approximately $0.600\; {\rm kg \cdot L^{-1}}$ .

(Assumption: the gravitational field strength is $g =9.806\; {\rm N \cdot kg^{-1}}$ )

Explanation:

When the gravitational field strength is $g$ , the weight $(\text{weight})$ of an object of mass $m$ would be $m\, g$ .

Conversely, if the weight of an object is $(\text{weight})$ in a gravitational field of strength $g$ , the mass $m$ of that object would be $m = (\text{weight}) / g$ .

Assuming that $g =9.806\; {\rm N \cdot kg^{-1}}$ . The mass of this $63.8\; {\rm N}$ -object would be:

$\begin{aligned} \text{mass} &= \frac{\text{weight}}{g} \\ &= \frac{63.8\; {\rm N}}{9.806\; {\rm N \cdot kg^{-1}}} \\ &\approx 6.506\; {\rm kg}\end{aligned}$ .

When an object is immersed in a liquid, the buoyancy force on that object would be equal to the weight of the liquid that was displaced. For instance, since the object in this question was fully immersed in water, the volume of water displaced would be equal to the volume of this object.

When this object was suspended in water, the buoyancy force on this object was $(63.8\; {\rm N} - 16.8\; {\rm N}) = 47.0\; {\rm N}$ . Hence, the weight of water that this object displaced would be $47.0 \; {\rm N}$ .

The mass of water displaced would be:

$\begin{aligned}\text{mass} &= \frac{\text{weight}}{g} \\ &= \frac{47.0\: {\rm N}}{9.806\; {\rm N \cdot kg^{-1}}} \\ &\approx 4.793\; {\rm kg}\end{aligned}$ .

The volume of that much water (which this object had displaced) would be:

$\begin{aligned}\text{volume} &= \frac{\text{mass}}{\text{density}} \\ &\approx \frac{4.793\; {\rm kg}}{1.00\; {\rm kg \cdot L^{-1}}} \\ &\approx 4.793\; {\rm L}\end{aligned}$ .

Since this object was fully immersed in water, the volume of this object would be equal to the volume of water displaced. Hence, the volume of this object is approximately $4.793\; {\rm L}$ .

The mass of this object is $6.50\; {\rm kg}$ . Hence, the density of this object would be:

$\begin{aligned} \text{density} &= \frac{\text{mass}}{\text{volume}} \\ &\approx \frac{6.506\; {\rm kg}}{4.793\; {\rm L}} \\ &\approx 1.36\; {\rm kg \cdot L^{-1}} \end{aligned}$ .

(Rounded to $\text{$3$ sig. fig.}$ )

Similarly, since this object was fully immersed in oil, the volume of oil displaced would be equal to the volume of this object: approximately $4.793\; {\rm L}$ .

The weight of oil displaced would be equal to the magnitude of the buoyancy force: $63.8\; {\rm N} - 35.6\; {\rm N} = 28.2\; {\rm N}$ .

The mass of that much oil would be:

$\begin{aligned}\text{mass} &= \frac{\text{weight}}{g} \\ &= \frac{28.2\: {\rm N}}{9.806\; {\rm N \cdot kg^{-1}}} \\ &\approx 2.876\; {\rm kg}\end{aligned}$ .

Hence, the density of the oil in this question would be:

$\begin{aligned} \text{density} &= \frac{\text{mass}}{\text{volume}} \\ &\approx \frac{2.876\; {\rm kg}}{4.793\; {\rm L}} \\ &\approx 0.600\; {\rm kg \cdot L^{-1}} \end{aligned}$ .

(Rounded to $\text{$3$ sig. fig.}$ )

7 0

2 years ago

Explain whether demand is likely to be elastic or inelastic for Big Macs. A. Elastic comma since many other fast food items coul

anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

A - elastic since many other fast food items could be considered close substitutes.

Explanation:

The price elasticity of demand is how much the demand of the Big Macs will change due to a 1% change in price. Should the elasticity be greater than 1, the Big Macs will be elastic. Should it be less than 1, the Big Macs are inelastic.

Demand elasticity is calculated as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by a percentage change in price.

Since Big Macs are (i) a luxury good, and (ii) have close substitutes (other burgers available at McDonalds and other fast food stores), we will say their elasticity is greater than 1.

This means that the demand of Big Macs will change due to a 1% increase in price due to the presence of close substitutes.

3 0

3 years ago

(a) Two ions with masses of 4.39×10^−27 kg move out of the slit of a mass spectrometer and into a region where the magnetic fiel

sammy [17]

Answer:

Part a)

$R_1 = 0.072 m$

Part b)

$R_2 = 0.036 m$

Part c)

d = 0.072 m

Explanation:

Part a)

As we know that the radius of the charge particle in constant magnetic field is given by

$R = \frac{mv}{qB}$

now for single ionized we have

$R_1 = \frac{(4.39\times 10^{-27})(7.92 \times 10^5)}{(1.6 \times 10^{-19})(0.301)}$

$R_1 = 0.072 m$

Part b)

Similarly for doubly ionized ion we will have the same equation

$R = \frac{mv}{qB}$

$R_2 = \frac{(4.39\times 10^{-27})(7.92 \times 10^5)}{(3.2 \times 10^{-19})(0.301)}$

$R_2 = 0.036 m$

Part c)

The distance between the two particles are half of the loop will be given as

$d = 2(R_1 - R_2)$

$d = 2(0.072 - 0.036)$

$d = 0.072 m$

6 0

3 years ago