A) the probability is 1 in 6 (1/6); there are six numbers and only one is 6, therefore 1 in 6
B) the probability is 5 in 6 (5/6); there are 6 numbers and only one is not 6, therefore 5 in 6
C) the probability of rolling a 6 is 1 in 6 and the probability of not rolling a 6 is 5 in 6
D) the probability is again 1 in 6 (1/6); 120 divided by 6 is 20, and 20/120 simplifies to 1/6
thats the best i can do to explain
Looking at the chart you see that the initial term is -1 and each successive term is 1 more than the previous one. The rule for nth term of an arithmetic sequence is:
a(n)=a+d(n-1), a(n)=nth term, a=initial term, d=common difference, n=term number.
In this case a=-1 and d=1 so
a(n)=-1+1(n-1)
a(n)=-1+n-1
a(n)=n-2
So the correct answer is A)
Answer:
We can say that the no.s are X and form the following equation:
X × (X + 2) = 440
2x = 440-2=438
x = 438/2
x= 219
x+2=219+2= 221
Answer:
Is this a question or are you telling us the answer?
Rewrite equation so that it is homogeneous .
Solve characteristic equation:
The solutions to the homogeneous equation are:
Finally you need the constant term in "cy" to equal 'd' to satisfy the particular solution.