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Alika [10]
3 years ago
15

Division A sells ground veal internally to Division​ B, which in​ turn, produces veal burgers that sell for $ 20.00 per pound. D

ivision A incurs costs of $ 2.25 per pound while Division B incurs additional costs of $ 8.50 per pound. What is Division​ A's operating income per​ burger, assuming the transfer price of the ground veal is set at $ 4.00 per​ burger? A. $ 4.50 B. $ 4.25 C. $ 2.25 D. $ 1.75
Business
1 answer:
kramer3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Division A

Operating Income:

Transfer Price = $4.00

Less Costs = $2,25

Operating Income = $1.75

Explanation:

The Transfer Price of $4.00 per burger to Division B is the selling price for Division A's product.

When the costs of producing Division A's product is subtracted from the selling price (transfer price), the result is the operating income.

Operating income is, therefore, the difference between selling price and costs.  These costs include the cost of goods sold and other expenses, like wages and salaries, rent, etc.  It is the income subject to taxes and profit distribution.

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In your own words, discuss the payback period, NPV (net present value), and IRR (internal rate of return) methods for capital bu
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

The net present value (NPV) is the most important and useful method of capital budgeting analysis. It is basically calculated by determining the present value of all the future cash flows generated by a project and then subtract the original investment cost. If the answer is positive (positive NPV) then the project should be profitable and the company should go ahead with it. The limitation of NPV results from the discount rate used to calculate the present value, since it is extremely important to use the proper discount rate and not one that is too low or too high.

The second most useful tool is the internal rate of return (IRR) which is very related to the NPV. The IRR shows us basically at what discount rate the NPV would equal 0. Generally if the IRR is higher than the discount rate the NPV should be positive.

The payback period shows us how much time it takes a project to recover the original amount of money invested in it. The payback period is only useful for some industries where early obsolescence might be a problem. E.g. technological firms only approve projects with very short payback periods because their products might be obsolete in just one or two years.

6 0
4 years ago
Consider the adjustment process at the end of the accounting period. 1. Record the adjusting entries in the journal. 2. Prepare
dimulka [17.4K]

Answer:

3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation:

The adjustment are required so that any change in any account would be recorded in the books of accounts

The steps to record the adjustments is as follows

3. Determine the accounts requiring adjustment, using the unadjusted trial balance. Like supplies, insurance, rent, etc

1. Record the adjusting entries in the journal.  Like supplies, insurance, rent, etc

For example, the adjusting entry for supplies account is

Supplies expense A/c Dr XXXXX

     To Supplies A/c XXXXX

(Being the supplies expense is recorded)

4. Post the adjusting entries to the general ledger.

2. Prepare an adjusted trial balance to check the equality of the debits and credits. It includes all the adjusting entries that are recorded and the trial is always matched.

6 0
3 years ago
You can buy property today for $2.1 million and sell it in 6 years for $3.1 million. A. If the interest rate is 11%, what is the
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

Present value of sales price =  465,395.16

Present Value of future cash flow=  465,359.16  

Explanation:

The present value of a sum expected in the future is the worth today given an opportunity cost interest rate. In another words ,it is amount receivable today that would make the investor to be indifferent between the amount receivable today and the future sum.

The present value of a lump sum can be worked out as follows:

PV = FV × (1+r)^(-n)

Present Value of sales price= 3.1 × 1.11^(-6) =1.65739

Present Value=165,738.65

Present Value of an annuity of 110,000 for 6 years:

PV = A × 1- ( (1+r)^(-n))/r

PV = 110,000× (1-1.11^(-6))/0.11= 465,359.16  

PV =  465,359.16  

5 0
3 years ago
risk represents the portion of an​ asset's risk that can be eliminated by combining assets with less than perfect positive corre
Viktor [21]

Answer:

Diversifiable

Explanation:

Diversifiable risk is risk that is peculiar to a company or industry. It can be eliminated by diversifying portfolio.

Systematic or Market risk is risk that is peculiar to the market and it can't be diversified away.

I hope my answer helps you

3 0
3 years ago
12 times 12
finlep [7]

Answer:

HELL NAH

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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