Answer:
You know that if f(x) = 1/(x²+1) then F(x)=arctan(x).
What is arctan(x) function? It is inverse function of tan(x) in tge range (-π/2, π/2).
So if tan(x) = y then x = arctan(y)
therefore arctan(-1) = -π/4 because tan(-π/4)=-1 and arctan(1)=π/4 because tan(π/4) = 1.
In conclusion:
integral (dx/(x²+1)) from -1 to 1 =
= F(1) - F(-1) = arctan(1) - arctan(-1) =
=π/4-(-π/4)=π/4+π/4 = π/2.
answer B is correct
Answer:
x=3
Step-by-step explanation:
x-6=-3
x=3
A=futurer amount
P=present amount
r=rate in decimal
n=number of times compounded per year
t=time in years
A=2500
r=0.05
n=2
t=2
divide both sides by [tex} 1.025^{4} [/tex]
2264.88=P
he should invest
$2264.88
When dealing with negatives, the higher the number is, the lower the value is. therefore, -34 is less that -9.
Answer:
x=-5
Step-by-step explanation:
hope i helped
