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3 years ago

The length of a rectangle is 5 cm more than the width. The perimeter is 50 cm. Find the length and width.

Mathematics

1 answer:

lianna [129]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Length=15

Widht=10

Brainliest Answer pls

Step-by-step explanation:

15-10=5

15x2=30

10x2=20

30+20=50

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Choose the correct Set-builder form for the following set written in Roster form: { − 3 , − 2 , − 1 , 0 , 1 }

ohaa [14]

The correct Set-builder form of the set that is written in Roster form is {x|x is an integer and -3≤x≤1}.

<h3>What is an integer?</h3>

An integer is a number that can be written without using a fractional component. Integers such as 21, 4, 0, and 2048 are examples.

The correct Set-builder form of the set that is written in Roster form can be written as,

{x|x is an integer and -3≤x≤1}

Hence, The correct Set-builder form of the set that is written in Roster form is {x|x is an integer and -3≤x≤1}.

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2 years ago

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

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3 years ago

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guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

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Please mark brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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