1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
nikitadnepr [17]
3 years ago
14

IS ANYONE GOOD AT SCIENTIFIC NOTATION?!

Mathematics
1 answer:
brilliants [131]3 years ago
6 0
Yes. Many contributors to Brainly are quite good at scientific notation. Especially the ones who check in regularly here in the Mathematics category.
You might be interested in
PLEASE HELP!!!
Paladinen [302]

Answer:

d (w) = 0.1w² – w+ 5

Step-by-step explanation:

d(w) = c(w) - a(w)

= -0.3w²+2w+13 -(-0.4w²+3w+8)

= -0.3w²+0.4w²+2w-3w+13-8

= 0.1w²-w+5

4 0
3 years ago
Use a proof by contradiction to show that the square root of 3 is national You may use the following fact: For any integer kirke
Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

1. Let us proof that √3 is an irrational number, using <em>reductio ad absurdum</em>. Assume that \sqrt{3}=\frac{m}{n} where  m and n are non negative integers, and the fraction \frac{m}{n} is irreducible, i.e., the numbers m and n have no common factors.

Now, squaring the equality at the beginning we get that

3=\frac{m^2}{n^2} (1)

which is equivalent to 3n^2=m^2. From this we can deduce that 3 divides the number m^2, and necessarily 3 must divide m. Thus, m=3p, where p is a non negative integer.

Substituting m=3p into (1), we get

3= \frac{9p^2}{n^2}

which is equivalent to

n^2=3p^2.

Thus, 3 divides n^2 and necessarily 3 must divide n. Hence, n=3q where q is a non negative integer.

Notice that

\frac{m}{n} = \frac{3p}{3q} = \frac{p}{q}.

The above equality means that the fraction \frac{m}{n} is reducible, what contradicts our initial assumption. So, \sqrt{3} is irrational.

2. Let us prove now that the multiplication of an integer and a rational number is a rational number. So, r\in\mathbb{Q}, which is equivalent to say that r=\frac{m}{n} where  m and n are non negative integers. Also, assume that k\in\mathbb{Z}. So, we want to prove that k\cdot r\in\mathbb{Z}. Recall that an integer k can be written as

k=\frac{k}{1}.

Then,

k\cdot r = \frac{k}{1}\frac{m}{n} = \frac{mk}{n}.

Notice that the product mk is an integer. Thus, the fraction \frac{mk}{n} is a rational number. Therefore, k\cdot r\in\mathbb{Q}.

3. Let us prove by <em>reductio ad absurdum</em> that the sum of a rational number and an irrational number is an irrational number. So, we have x is irrational and p\in\mathbb{Q}.

Write q=x+p and let us suppose that q is a rational number. So, we get that

x=q-p.

But the subtraction or addition of two rational numbers is rational too. Then, the number x must be rational too, which is a clear contradiction with our hypothesis. Therefore, x+p is irrational.

7 0
3 years ago
What is (16x+9)+(−9x−5) ?
seropon [69]

Answer:

7+4

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which triangles are similar? which theorem do you use to prove the similarity?​
AURORKA [14]
I think the similar triangle is d and b for this question
7 0
3 years ago
The graph of an inverse trigonometric function passes through the point (1, pi/2). Which of the following could be the equation
rodikova [14]

Answer: C) y=sin^-1 x

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, the graph of an inverse trigonometric function will pass through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}),

If this point satisfies the function,

For the function y=cos^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=cos^{-1}1=0

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cos^{-1} x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=cot^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=cot^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function y=cot^{-1}x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cot^{-1}x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=sin^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=sin^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{2}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is satisfying function y=sin^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=sin^{-1} x is passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

For the function y=tan^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=tan^{-1} x is not passing through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

Hence, Option C is correct.

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • The distance between home and school is 4.5 miles. On a map it shows the distance to be 9 cm. What is the scale?
    15·1 answer
  • What is the slope of y= 6x+2
    15·2 answers
  • What is 1/4 subtract 1 and 1/2 A. 1/2 B. 1/8 C. 3/4 D. 3/8
    15·1 answer
  • What is (250*645)+345(879*521)-54(219*5674)
    9·1 answer
  • Theorem: A line parallel to one side of a triangle divides the other two proportionately.
    9·1 answer
  • What is the percentage of 27​
    8·2 answers
  • Maria has a businesses designing t shirts. Her cost for materials, in thousands of dollars
    11·1 answer
  • An item that originally costs $12.00 was on the clearance aisle for $3.60. What is the percentage of discount?
    6·1 answer
  • Samirs bedroom has an area of 48 square feet.
    9·1 answer
  • I need help with this question please and thank you
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!