Answer:
Taylor Company
The negligence to amortize the discount on outstanding ten-year bonds payable is the understatement of interest expense for each year. This means that the interest expense will be the same for each year instead of increasing by the amortized discount amount. The same applies to the bond carrying value, which will remain the same throughout the period.
Explanation:
The discount on bonds payable is an additional interest expense, which is written off yearly over the bonds' maturity period through amortization. It increases the amount of the periodic interest payment by the amortized discount.
That statement is true
Even though an electronic cover letter is somewhat informal, the purpose in writing it is to lend you an interview for a Job. So it's still have to follow a business letter format to make you seem more educated
Answer:
I'm not 100% but I strongly believe it is A. as after the Civil War post 1860's the Industrial Revolution took over the nation and a majority of laborers/workers were doing Industrial work.
Explanation:
Given that m<span>any
people believe that pure monopolies charge any price they want to
without affecting sales. instead, the output level for a
profit-maximizing pure monopoly occurs where </span><span>MC = MR (marginal cost equals marginal revenue).</span>
Answer:
$7,500
Explanation:
Calculation for the Depreciation of rah second year of the asset's life
Second year depreciation=(1/8 years*2)*[($40,000)-(1/8 years*2* $40,000)]
Second year depreciation=(0.25)*[($40,000)-(0.25*$40,000)]
Second year depreciation=(0.25)*[($40,000-$10,000)]
Second year depreciation=0.25*$30,000
Second year depreciation=$7,500
Therefore the Depreciation of rah second year of the asset's life using the double-declining-balance method is: $7,500
