Answer:
A)
μ = 5
σ = 2.2
B)
P(0) = 0.0066
C)
P(x ≥ 4) = 0.74
Step-by-step explanation:
A) The expected value is going to be the same as the mean μ.
We can use the binomial probability distribution because there are a fixed number of trials (500), each trial is independent and there are only two possible outcomes (CPU failure or not) and the probability of failure has the fixed value 0.01.
For binomial distributions:
μ = np, where p is the probability (in this case of CPU failure) and n is the number of trials (500)
μ = (500)(0.01) = 5
σ =
, where q = 1 - p
σ =
= 2.2
B) We can use the binomial probability formula
× pˣ × qⁿ⁻ˣ
× 0.01⁰ × 0.99⁵⁰⁰
C) In this case wee need to use a binomial distribution calculator. Setting n as 500, π = 0.01 and finding the probability above 3.
2 1/2 because if u take away 4 from 2 u get 2 and a half left
Asumming that 3/5 is the number of miles Jennifer has gone in 1/5 of an hour. We can take 60 (# of minutes in an hour) divided by 5, which equals 12. So 3/5 is 36 minutes. to figure out how many 1/5 are in 8 miles we would take 8 times 5 which is 40. We would then take 3 times 8, which is 24. 40 - 24 = 16. So 16 times 5 = 80 minutes. 80 divided by 60 (# of minutes in an hour) is 1 hour and 20 minutes. So it takes Jennifer 1 hour and 20 minutes to travel 8 miles.