In aplastic anemia, then lab result will be decreased in all blood component( white blood cells, red blood cells, and thrombocyte).
Aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow failure. Bone marrow is the place that produces blood cells, so the decrease wouldn't be in the red blood cell only, but in other blood cells too. There shouldn't be any iron deficiency or decreases in the mean corpuscular volume
Answer:
This means that one amino acid can be coded by more that one codon.
Explanation:
A triplet code that code for an amino acid during translation is called genetic code. The genetic code is said to be redundant because a single amino acid can be coded by more that one triplet codon.
So there can be synonymous codon for one amino acid. For example, leucine, serine, and arginine have 6 synonymous codons.
The genetic code is unambiguous also because each triplet codon can only code for a particular single amino acid. Genetic code is also universal which means the same code is used in all life forms.
According to the research, the correct option is lateralization. Your ability to process language in the left hemisphere of the brain and spatial thinking in the right hemisphere of the brain is called lateralization.
<h3>What is lateralization?</h3>
It refers to the functional differentiation that exists in the human brain, that is, it is made up of the functions and processes that are specific to each hemisphere and, therefore, the capacities that are carried out predominantly through one hemisphere.
The hemispheres are interconnected through bundles of neuronal fibers that belong to the corpus callosum and, despite this, the left hemisphere performs a set of different functions with respect to the right and vice versa.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is lateralization. Your ability to process language in the left hemisphere of the brain and spatial thinking in the right hemisphere of the brain is called lateralization.
Learn more about lateralization here: brainly.com/question/14313397
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Answer:
The correct answer is "negative".
Explanation:
At pH 2 the net charge of the R groups of all the amino acids that comprise the peptide in question would be positive. This happens because of the high content of protons in a solution of pH 2, a value that is below the isoelectric point of all the amino acids. Since the peptide would have a positive net charge, it would migrate to the negative terminal of the gel because opposite charges attract each other.
He used a simple microscope
