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irina [24]
3 years ago
11

- 65. When you compare brands, you should consider price and advertising. a. True b. False

Business
2 answers:
pantera1 [17]3 years ago
5 0
I would say the answer is a
Ivan3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

I would say A.

Explanation:

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Which of the following accounts would not be included in the Acquisition and Payment for Long-Lived Assets Cycle? a. Revenue. b.
velikii [3]

Answer:

The correct answer is A

Explanation:

Acquisition and Payment Cycle, also called as the PPP cycle for which the payments, purchases and payables, is mainly comprise of the two classes of the transaction. This cycle is regarding the payables and to pay off the payables with cash.

Acquisition and payment of the long lived assets, which are those assets, the business retain for at least one year. The revenue will not be included in the cycle because it is related to the payables.

7 0
3 years ago
INVESTOR Corp. was interested in investing in bonds and, on 01/01/2012 purchased 8% bonds dated January 1, 2012. These bonds had
seropon [69]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Step-by-step explanation:

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

5 0
3 years ago
Economan has been infected by the free enterprise bug. He sets up a firm on extraterrestrial affairs. The rent of the building i
monitta

Answer:

There are two types of profit and costs in nay business, which are accounting costs/profit and the economic costs/profits.

Accounting costs include everything that is tangible or the monetary costs a firm pays, while the economic costs include the cost which is intangible(Opportunity costs) as well as tangible.

Here in this question, the profit of the firm therefore is,

a. From an accountant;s definition = 130000-(6000+42000+7000) = 75000.

b. From an economist's definition = 130000-(6000+42000+7000+65000+6000) = 4000.

Hope this helps you. Thankyou.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Caddie Manufacturing has a target debt-equity ratio of .95. Its cost of equity is 11 percent, and its pretax cost of debt is 7 p
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

8.20%

Explanation:

Debt equity ratio = 0.95

or

Debt = 0.95 × equity

Cost of equity, ke = 11% or 0.11

Pretax cost of debt, kd = 7% or 0.07

Tax rate = 24% or 0.24

Therefore;

WACC = {Weight of equity × ke } + {Weight of debt × kd × (1-Tax rate)}

It is to be noted that ;

Weight of equity = Equity ÷ (Debt + Equity)

= Equity ÷ ( 0.95×Equity + Equity)

=1 ÷ 1.95

=0.513

Also,

Weight of debt = Debt ÷ ( Debt + Equity)

=0.95 × Equity ÷ ( 0.95 × Equity + Equity)

= 0.95 ÷ 1.95

=0.487

Hence,

WACC = {0.513 × 0.11} + {0.487 × 0.07 × (1-0.24)}

= {0.05643} + {0.03409 × 0.76}

= 0.0823384

or

0.0823384 × 100%

=8.23384

=8.20%

6 0
3 years ago
When a manufacturer forbids an intermediary to carry products of competing manufacturers, the arrangement is known as _____.
sineoko [7]

When a manufacturer forbids an intermediary to carry products of competing manufacturers, the arrangement is known as exclusive dealing.

Exclusive dealing happens while one commercial enterprise buying and sells with some other places situations on the opposite's freedom to pick what it buys or sells, who it does commercial enterprise with, or wherein it trades. Unique dealing is common in business preparations. extraordinary dealing is only illegal while it drastically lessens opposition.

Exclusive dealing is normally described by using the state of affairs wherein the advertising outlet contains best the fabricated from one manufacturer in a particular product type. as an example, while McDonald's sells the handiest Coca-Cola, this is distinctive dealing.

Learn more about manufacturer here: brainly.com/question/25279292

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
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