All categories

3 years ago

Answer this question plz

Mathematics

1 answer:

olya-2409 [2.1K]3 years ago

8 0

Answer: velocity-time graph

Step-by-step explanation: The principle is that the slope of the line on a velocity-time graph reveals useful information about the acceleration of the object. If the acceleration is zero, then the slope is zero (i.e., a horizontal line). If the acceleration is positive, then the slope is positive (i.e., an upward sloping line).

You might be interested in

Plz help will give brainliest and points

PilotLPTM [1.2K]

The answer is C wnmdkdkdkdkdkdkdkdkdkdkd

6 0

2 years ago

A car's wheels spins at 1000 revolutions per minute. The diameter of the wheels is 23 inches. You want to know how fast the car

ch4aika [34]

Answer:

72,220 inches per minute

Step-by-step explanation:

A car's wheels spins at 1000 revolutions per minute. The diameter of the wheels is 23 inches.

1 revolution = $2\pi$ radians

$\frac{theta}{tome}=\frac{1000 \ revolution}{1 \ minuite} = \frac{1000* 2\pi }{1} =\frac{2000\pi}{1 \ minute}$

Speed $V= \frac{r*theta}{t}$

r is the radius , theta is the angle and t is the time

We know diameter = 23 , then radius = 23/2

Speed $V= \frac{23}{2}*\frac{2000\pi}{1}$

Value of pi = 3.14

speed = 23000* 3.14= 72220 inches/ minute

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can you please help me solve thanks step by step

shusha [124]

Answer:

40 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

We know the entire angle of ABD is 70 and CBD and ABC are in it.

Since we know one of them (CBD) is 30, we can subtract 30 from 70 to find ABC. This is because the angle of ABC and CBD equal ABD.

30 + x = 70

-30 from both sides

x = 40

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Roasted peanuts cost 3 per pound at the local market. What is the cost of a 6 pound bag of peanuts

Novosadov [1.4K]

6 x 3 you do the math

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

I forgot how to do this

adoni [48]

Answer:

$\boxed{ \bold{ \huge{ \boxed{ \sf{1}}}}}$

Step-by-step explanation:

$\sf{ \frac{1}{2} \times 2}$

Multiply the numerators for the numerator and multiply the denominators for its denominator and reduce the fraction obtained after multiplication into lowest term.

$\dashrightarrow{ \sf{ \frac{1 \times 2}{2 \times 1} }}$

$\dashrightarrow{ \sf{ \frac{2}{2} }}$

$\dashrightarrow{ \sf{1}}$

Or, You can simply reduce the fraction with 2, which results to 1.

Hope I helped!

Best regards! :D

6 0

3 years ago