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Alchen [17]
4 years ago
11

Why do we have to specify that the rational number must be nonzero when we determine what the product of a nonzero rational numb

er and irrational number is? If the rational number were 0, would it give us the same result we found in part B?
Mathematics
1 answer:
prisoha [69]4 years ago
8 0

Part B seems to be missing, but I think I have enough information to be able to answer.

Let's say we had two numbers x and y. Let x be rational and y be irrational.

If x is some nonzero number, then x*y is irrational. The proof for this is a bit lengthy so I'll leave it out.

For instance,

x = 2 is rational, y = sqrt(3) is irrational, x*y = 2*sqrt(3) is irrational.

------------------

If we made x = 0, then

x*y = 0*y = 0

This is true for any value of y that we want. The y value doesnt even have to be irrational. It can be any real number.

------------------

So the distinction is that if x = 0, then x*y = 0 is rational since 0 is rational. Otherwise, x*y is irrational.

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Answer:

The cost he will pay for 10 rides will be $70 and for r rides will be .

Step-by-step explanation:

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6 0
2 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
The width of a rectangle is five less than three times the width of the rectangle. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 70 inche
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3 years ago
Categorize the following logical fallacy.
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Answer:

d. Ad hominem

Step-by-step explanation:

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VI. Straw man.

VII. Oversimplification or hasty generalization.

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IX. Appeal to pity.

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Ad hominem can be defined as a type of fallacy in which the motive, character, or some other aspect of a person is attacked rather than his or her position.

This ultimately implies that, Ad hominem is typically based on prejudices, emotions, or feelings rather than appealing to reason, intellect or substance.

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