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abruzzese [7]
3 years ago
15

You are considering building a residential wind power system to produce 6,000 kWh of electricity each year. The installed cost o

f the system is $1.50/Winstalled. The system is estimated to have a capacity factor of 22% and a 10 year life. The interest rate is 8% with an operations and maintenance cost of $0.04/kWhgenerated. What is the leveled cost of electricity for the system ($/kWh)?
Engineering
1 answer:
alisha [4.7K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

leveled cost of electricity LCOE is 0.1159/kwh

Explanation:

given data:

installation cost of system = $1.50/winstalled

capacity factor = 22%

life = 10 year

rate of interest 8%

operation and maintenance cost = $0.04 / kwh generated

capcaitence recovery factorCRF = \frac{i(i+1)^n}{(i+1)^n -1}

i= rate of interest

n = annuity period

CRF = \frac{0.08(1+0.08)^10}}{(1+0.08)^{10} -1} = 0.14903

LCOE = \frac{cost\ of \installation \times CRF}{hours/ available \times capacity\ factor} + variable\ o&M\ cost

=  \frac{1.50\times 1000/kw \times 0.14903}{8760\times 0.22} + 0.04/kwh

          = 0.1159/kwh + 0.04 /kwh

          = 0.1559 /kwh

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Consider a 2-shell-passes and 8-tube-passes shell-and-tube heat exchanger. What is the primary reason for using many tube passes
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Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

Solution:-

- The shell and tube heat exchanger are designated by the order of tube and shell passes.

- A single tube pass: The fluid enters from inlet, exchange of heat, the fluid exits.

- A multiple tube pass: The fluid enters from inlet, exchange of heat, U bend of the fluid, exchange of heat, .... ( nth order of pass ), and then exits.

- By increasing the number of passes we have increased the "retention time" of a specific volume of tube fluid; hence, providing sufficient time for the fluid to exchange heat with the shell fluid.

- By making more U-turns we are allowing greater length for the fluid flow to develop with " constriction and turns " into turbulence. This turbulence usually at the final passes allows mixing of fluid and increases the heat transfer coefficient by:

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5 0
3 years ago
For some metal alloy, a true stress of 345 MPa (50040 psi) produces a plastic true strain of 0.02. How much will a specimen of t
saveliy_v [14]

Complete Question

For some metal alloy, a true stress of 345 MPa (50040 psi) produces a plastic true strain of 0.02. How much will a specimen of this material elongate when a true stress of 411 MPa (59610 psi) is applied if the original length is 470 mm (18.50 in.)?Assume a value of 0.22 for the strain-hardening exponent, n.

Answer:

The elongation is =21.29mm

Explanation:

In order to gain a good understanding of this solution let define some terms

True Stress

       A true stress can be defined as the quotient obtained when instantaneous applied load is divided by instantaneous cross-sectional area of a material it can be denoted as \sigma_T.

True Strain

     A true strain can be defined as the value obtained when the natural logarithm quotient of instantaneous gauge length divided by original gauge length of a material is being bend out of shape by a uni-axial force. it can be denoted as \epsilon_T.

The mathematical relation between stress to strain on the plastic region of deformation is

              \sigma _T =K\epsilon^n_T

Where K is a constant

          n is known as the strain hardening exponent

           This constant K can be obtained as follows

                        K = \frac{\sigma_T}{(\epsilon_T)^n}

No substituting  345MPa \ for  \ \sigma_T, \ 0.02 \ for \ \epsilon_T , \ and  \ 0.22 \ for  \ n from the question we have

                     K = \frac{345}{(0.02)^{0.22}}

                          = 815.82MPa

Making \epsilon_T the subject from the equation above

              \epsilon_T = (\frac{\sigma_T}{K} )^{\frac{1}{n} }

Substituting \ 411MPa \ for \ \sigma_T \ 815.82MPa \ for \ K  \ and  \  0.22 \ for \ n

       \epsilon_T = (\frac{411MPa}{815.82MPa} )^{\frac{1}{0.22} }

            =0.0443

       

From the definition we mentioned instantaneous length and this can be  obtained mathematically as follows

           l_i = l_o e^{\epsilon_T}

Where

       l_i is the instantaneous length

      l_o is the original length

Substituting  \ 470mm \ for \ l_o \ and \ 0.0443 \ for  \ \epsilon_T

             l_i = 470 * e^{0.0443}

                =491.28mm

We can also obtain the elongated length mathematically as follows

            Elongated \ Length =l_i - l_o

Substituting \ 470mm \ for l_o and \ 491.28 \ for \ l_i

          Elongated \ Length = 491.28 - 470

                                       =21.29mm

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The given family of functions is the general solution of the differential equation on the indicated interval.Find a member of th
Alja [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

y'''+y=0---(i)

General solution

y=c_1e^o^x+c_2\cos x +c_3 \sin x\\\\\Rightarrow y=c_1+c_2 \cos x+c_3 \sin x---(ii)\\\\y(\pi)=0\\\\\Rightarrow 0=c_1+c_2\cos (\pi)+c_3\sin (\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow c_1-c_2=0\\\\c_1=c_2---(iii)

y'=-c_2\cos x+c_3\cosx\\\\y'(\pi)=2\\\\\Rightarrow2=-c_2\sin(\pi)+c_3\cos(\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow-c_2(0)+c_3(-1)=2\\\\\Rightarrow c_3=-2\\\\y''-c_2\cos x -c_3\sin x\\\\y''(\pi)=-1\\\\\Rightarrow-1=-c_2 \cos (\pi)=c_3\sin(\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow-1=c_2-0\\\\\Rightarrow c_2=-1

in equation (iii)

c_1=c_2=-1

Therefore,

\large\boxed{y=-1-\cos x-2\sin x}

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