Answer:
At the end of year 4 (one year before the first cash flow)
Explanation:
According to the present value of perpetuity concept here we divided the predicted cash flows by the rate of that period by calculating this it provides the present value that is prior to the cash flow now if we want for more years so we should have to discount over that time period
Since in the given situation the starting of the cash flows is from the ending of year 5 therefore the timeline would be at the closing of year 4 i..e one year prior to the first cash flow
Answer:
Explanation:
(1)
FV = PV x (1 + r)^N
FV = $75,000
PV = $35,000
r = 8%
75,000 = 35,000 x (1.08)^N
(1.08)N = 2.1429
N ln 1.08 = ln 2.1429
N = ln 2.1429 / ln 1.08 = 0.33 / 0.033 = 10 years
(2)
FV = Annual payment, A x PVA
FV = $43,700
n = 6 years
A = 8,000
43,700 = 8,000 x PVA
PVA = 5.4625
PVIFA (6 years, r%) = 5.4172
r=3%.
(3)
PV = Annual payment, A x PVIFA (r%, n years)
PV = $18,000
n = 6 years
r = 9%
$18,000 = A x PVIFA (9%, 6 years) = A x 4.4859 [From PVIFA table]
A = $18,000 / 4.4859 = $4,012.57
Answer:
Journal Entry
Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit
Jan 1 Cash $511,875
Bond payable $450,000
Premium on bond payable $61,875
($450,000*13.75%)
(To record issue of bonds at premium)
Currently, I would say LEAN and Six Sigma.
