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oksian1 [2.3K]
3 years ago
12

What is the risk of going into a group of more than 20 or more people at this time from coronavirus?

Mathematics
2 answers:
olga55 [171]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Even if a person doesn't show symptoms, they can still have it.

Step-by-step explanation:

That's the problem.

Even if you think everyone isn't sick, they very well could be, and because there is no vaccine and it spreads so quickly, there's a chance that all the people in that group could get it.

Katarina [22]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Getting infected

Step-by-step explanation:

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Daniel [21]

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Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

  1. f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective implies there exists a function h : Y \rightarrow X such that  f\circ h = 1_Y.
  2. If there exists a function h : Y \rightarrow X such that  f\circ h = 1_Y, then f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective. From this we know that for every y\in Y there exist, at least, one x\in X such that y=f(x).

Now, define the sets X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}. Notice that the set X_y is the pre-image of the element y. Also, from the fact that f is a function we deduce that X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset, and because  f the sets X_y are no empty.

From each set X_y  choose only one element x_y, and notice that f(x_y)=y.

So, we can define the function h:Y\rightarrow X as h(y)=x_y. It is no difficult to conclude that f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y. With this we have that f\circ h=1_Y, and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function  h:Y\rightarrow X  such that f\circ h=1_Y.

Take an element y\in Y, then f\circ h(y)=y. Now, write x=h(y) and notice that x\in X. Also, with this we have that f(x)=y.

So, for every element y\in Y we have found that an element x\in X (recall that x=h(y)) such that y=f(x), which is equivalent to the fact that f is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0
3 years ago
A store sells 1/4 pound of beef for $0.75. If u are having a party and need 6 pounds of beef for hamburgers,using the unit rate,
hodyreva [135]

1/4 pound beef, b = $0.75

=》 6 pounds beef = (6)/ (1/4) × b

=》 6 pounds beef = 24 × $0.75 =$18.00

8 0
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