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Masja [62]
3 years ago
14

Hubert lives in San Diego and runs a business that sells guitars. In an average year, he receives $701,000 from selling guitars.

Of this sales revenue, he must pay the manufacturer a wholesale cost of $420,000; he also pays wages and utility bills totaling $247,000. He owns his showroom; if he chooses to rent it out, he will receive $9,000 in rent per year. Assume that the value of this showroom does not depreciate over the year. Also, if Hubert does not operate this guitar business, he can work as a financial advisor, receive an annual salary of $32,000 with no additional monetary costs, and rent out his showroom at the $9,000 per year rate. No other costs are incurred in running this guitar business.
Identify each of Hubert's costs in the following table as either an implicit cost or an explicit cost of selling guitars.
Business
1 answer:
erica [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explicit costs are the monetary costs that a business incurs when it makes a payment, either in the form of wages, or taxes, or to manufacturers, etc.

Implicit costs are the opportunity costs that arise when businesses give up on other options when making a choice. They are not represented by any actual payments.

In this case, we have the following explicit costs:

$420,000 paid to the manufacturer

$247,000 paid in wages and utility bills

And we have the following implicit costs:

$9,000 in rent per year if Hubert rented out the local

$32,000 per year if Hubert worked as a financial advisor

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A corporate bond has a face value of $10,000, a bond interest rate of 8% per year payable semiannually, and a maturity date of 2
Nezavi [6.7K]

Answer:

$400 every 6 months.

Explanation:

Step wise solution is given.

6 0
4 years ago
Specter Co. has identified an investment project with the following cash flows. Year Cash Flow 1 $ 820 2 1,130 3 1,390 4 1,525 a
harina [27]

Answer:

$3,765.26

Explanation:

Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows.

Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator

Cash Flow in year 1 = $ 820

Cash Flow in year 2 = 1,130

Cash Flow in year 3 = 1,390

Cash Flow in year 4 = 1,525

I = 10

PV = $3,765.26

To find the PV using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
3 years ago
g Bellingham Company produced 3,400 units of product that required 1.5 standard direct labor hours per unit. The standard fixed
QveST [7]

Answer:

the fixed factory overhead volume variance is $1,180 unfavorable

Explanation:

The computation of the fixed factory overhead volume variance is shown below

= (Actual activity - normal activity)× fixed overhead cost per unit

= (3,400 × 1.5 - 5,500) × $2.95

= (5,100 - 5,500) × 2.95

= 400 × 2.95

= $1,180 unfavorable

Hence, the fixed factory overhead volume variance is $1,180 unfavorable

Simply we applied the above formula so that the correct amount could come  

8 0
3 years ago
Macroeconomics is best defined as the study of
just olya [345]

Answer:

1. the overall operation of the national and global economy.

2. The B she received on the exam.

3. the slope of the graph is negative.

4. the slope of the graph is positive.

5. graphically illustrates the concept of scarcity.

6. increasing opportunity cost.

Explanation:

1. Macroeconomics is best defined as the study of the overall operation of the national and global economy.

Macroeconomics can be defined as the study of behaviors, performance and factors that affect the entire economy. Hence, it focuses on aggregate phenomena such as price level, economic growth, Gross Domestic Product (GDP), inflation, unemployment and national income levels with respect to the central bank, demand or supply shocks, government policies, aggregate spending and savings.

2. The opportunity cost of going to the beach is the "B" grade she received on the exam.

In Economics, opportunity cost also known as the alternative forgone, can be defined as the value, profit or benefits given up by an individual or organization in order to choose or acquire something deemed significant at the time.

Thus, the value of the opportunities lost (scoring an "A" grade) by going to the beach is the opportunity cost of her choice.

3. When two variables have an inverse relationship, then the slope of the graph is negative.

An inverse relationship can be defined as a relationship between two variables, in which an increase in the value of one variable leads to a decrease in the value of the other variable i.e as the value of one variable becomes large, the value of the other variable becomes small.

4. When two variables have a direct relationship, then the slope of the graph is positive.

A positive relationship or correlation can be defined as the relationship between two variables in which there exist a direct relationship between them i.e as one variable increases, the other increases and vice-versa.

5. The production possibilities curve graphically illustrates the concept of scarcity.

The production possibilities curve (PPC) is also known as the production possibilities frontier (PPF) and its a curve which illustrates the maximum (best) combinations of two products that can be produce in an economy if they both depend on these factors;

1. Technology is fixed.

2. Resources are fixed.

6. A production possibilities curve that is concave or bowed out from the origin represents increasing opportunity cost.

The production possibilities curve (PPC) is depicted graphically as an arc, by representing one good on the y-axis and the other on the x-axis.

7 0
3 years ago
A stock price with no dividends is $50 and the strike price of a 1-year European put option is $54. The risk-free rate is 5% (co
Murljashka [212]

Answer:

Lower Bound (Minimum Value) of Put Option = Max. of ( 0 , S * E-rt - C) (In Bold is PV of S)

where, C = Spot Price / Current Price , S = Exercise Price/ Strike Price, Rf= Risk free rate , t is tenure in pa, E is Exponential

= Max. of (0, 30 * E-rt - 35)

= max. of (0, 28.5 - 35) = Max of (0, -6.5)

Thus 0 is the Minimum Bound.

At below 0 say -0.1 (Impracticle Put Buyer will never receive OP)

At Above 0 say 0.1; Gain/ Loss = PV of 30 -35 - OP =28.85 -35 - 0.1 = -6.25 Loss i.e No Arbitrage Opportunity.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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