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3 years ago

What's the best strategy for avoiding ATM fees?

Business

2 answers:

GalinKa [24]3 years ago

6 0

Going to your designated bak

Firlakuza [10]3 years ago

4 0

The best and most secure strategy for avoiding ATM fees would be that you only use the ATMs which are under the control of your own bank. When you do that, you will not pay any fee. When you use ATMs from other banks, you will always pay a certain fee.

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The NASAA Statement of Policy on Dishonest or Unethical Business Practices of Broker-Dealers and Agents includes prohibitions ag

Semmy [17]

Answer:

B) wash trades

Explanation:

In the case when the wash trades are performed so it consists the simultaneous or near-simultaneous i.e. selling and the repurchase of the similar security for the motive of producing the trading activity due to which price rise. This is the form of how the market manipulates. The other options i.e. given in the question is not considered the market manipulation

Therefore the option B is correct

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3 years ago

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Just dialate the quartile broski its fax bro

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3 years ago

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A company currently pays a dividend of $2.8 per share (D0 = $2.8). It is estimated that the company's dividend will grow at a ra

Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

Intrinsic value: 53.41 dollars

Explanation:

First, we use the CAPM model to know the value of the stock

$Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)$

risk free 0.085

premium market =(market rate - risk free) = 0.045

beta(non diversifiable risk) 1.3

$Ke= 0.085 + 1.3 (0.045)$

Ke 0.14350

Now we need to know the present value of the future dividends:

D0 = 2.8

D1 = D0 x (1+g) = 2.8 * 1.23 = 3.444

D2 3.444 x 1.23 = 4.2361200

The next dividends, which are at perpetuity will we solve using the dividned grow model:

$\frac{divends}{return-growth} = Intrinsic \: Value$

In this case dividends will be:

4.23612 x 1.07 = 4.5326484

return will be how return given by CAPM and g = 7%

plug this into the Dividend grow model.

$\frac{4.5326484}{0.1435 - 0.07} = Intrinsic \: Value$

value of the dividends at perpetity: 61.6686857

FInally is important to note this values are calculate in their current year. We must bring them to present day using the present value of a lump sum:

$\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$