Answer:
a. Single
b. Compounding
Explanation:
Lump sums refers to a single payment that is made to a person or an organisation at a specified time. This is different from installment payment that is made as a number of smaller payments over a specified period of time.
Compounding refers to a method of reinvesting earnings or profits from assets or investment with aim of generating extra earnings over time.
Compounding is the foundation of Future Value (FV) as it considers the present value (PV) of an asset, the total number of years, how frequent the compounding takes place in a year, and the annual interest rate as given in the formula in the question which represented as follows:
FV = PV(1 + I)^N
Where;
FV = Future Value
PV = Present Value
I = annual interest rate
N = number of years
Therefore, single payments are known as lump sums. We can solve for the future value or the present value of a lump sum as we discuss below.
Finding the future value (FV), or compounding, is the process of going from today's values to future amounts.
The financial market history shows that too many securities have statistically significant values.
All zeros that occur among any non-0 digits are significant. as an instance, 108.0097 consists of seven significant digits. All zeros which are on the right of a decimal point and added to the left of a non-zero digit are in no way significant. for example, zero.00798 contained three substantial digits.
The CAPM takes into consideration systematic threat (beta), which is neglected by other go-back fashions, such as the dividend bargain model (DDM). Systematic or market threat is an essential variable due to the fact it is unexpected and, for that reason, frequently can not be absolutely mitigated.
The intention of the CAPM formula is to evaluate whether a stock in all fairness is valued while its chance and the time cost of cash are as compared with its anticipated return. In other phrases, it's far viable, via understanding the personal parts of the CAPM, to gauge whether the present-day price of an inventory is consistent with its possibly go back.
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Answer:
$5,000 ; $2,550
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
For net income in year 1
= Reported net income + overstated inventory amount
= $3,000 + $2,000
= $5,000
For net income in year 2
= Reported net income - understated inventory amount
= $3,000 - $450
= $2,550
Therefore, the net income in Year 1 and in Year 2 is $5,000 and $2,550 respectively.
Answer:
Explicit costs - $51,000
Explicit costs are those for which a person incurs in actual spending of money. In this case, Christine had to pay $15,000 in wages, and $36,000 in rent ($3,000 x 12). These are expenses that she had to pay money for, and that had to be accounted for in the accounting books, and in the financial statements. These are in other words, explicit costs.
Implicit costs - $40,000
Implicit costs are simply the opportunity costs. An opportunity cost is the cost of the next more valuable alternative when faced with two or more options. No money is paid for this costs. The implicit costs for Christine were the $40,000 that she not receive as wages if she had continued working at a real state firm.
Comparative advantage<span> refers to the ability of a party to produce a particular good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another.Hope you like:)</span><span>
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