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choli [55]
2 years ago
10

In which of the following situations will the acting party be liable for the tort of negligence? Explain fully.

Business
1 answer:
Eddi Din [679]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

C). Shannon's physician gives her some pain medication and tells her not to drive after she takes it, as the medication induces drowsiness. In spite of the doctor's warning, Shannon decides to drive to the store while on the medication. Owing to her lack of alertness, she fails to stop at a traffic light and crashes into another vehicle, causing a passenger in that vehicle to be injured.

Explanation:

Negligence is defined as the 'tort whereby a duty of reasonable or standard care as defined by law is breached, causing damage or any conduct short of .'

In the above situation, Shanon was aware of the after-effects of the medication she took as her physician instructs her to not drive because she may feel drowsy. Despite this warning, her decision to drive to the store reflects her negligence i.e. 'intentional action that falls below the legal standard for preventing unreasonable damage or harm.' Thus, <u>option C</u> is the correct answer.

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schepotkina [342]

Kick start will be totally owned and controlled by memory makers, which makes kick start a subsidiary of memory makers.

<h3>What is a Subsidiary?</h3>

This refers to the branch of a company which performs a different function from the parent company but has the same vision and mission which is to increase profit and sales.

With this in mind, we can see that because Orlando who owns an event planning company opens a marketing company so as to focus on product launches, this shows that they are a subsidiary.

Read more about subsidiary here:
brainly.com/question/4688609

5 0
2 years ago
A manufacturing company that has only one product has established the following standards for its variable manufacturing overhea
n200080 [17]

Answer:

 Variable overhead efficiency variance $ 8,018 <u> </u>Unfavorable

Explanation:

<em>Variable overhead efficiency variance: Variable overhead efficiency variance aims to determine whether or not their exist savings or extra cost incurred on variable overhead as a result of workers being faster or slower that expected.  </em>

Since the variable overhead is charged using labour hours, any amount by which the actual labour hours differ from the standard allowable hours would result in a variance  

                                                                                      Hours

2,700 units should have taken (2,700 × 3.20)           8640

but did take  (actual hours)                                   <u>      9,400</u>

Efficiency variance in hours                                      760 unfavorable

standard variable overhead cost per hour           <u>$10.55</u>

Variable overhead efficiency variance                  $<u> 8,018  </u>Unfavorable

 Variable overhead efficiency variance $ 8,018 <u> </u>Unfavorable

8 0
3 years ago
Pascal is a customer-service representative who handles phone inquiries. He has a goal of handling 12 calls per hour. When he ge
Montano1993 [528]

Answer:

A. Ill-conceived goals

Explanation:

Ill-conceived goals refers to setting of goals or incentives in order to promote a desired behavior whereas indirectly encouraging a negative one.

When setting ill-conceived goals, the unintended effects of these goals should duly be taken into consideration.

7 0
2 years ago
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The amount of a real estate broker's commission is
zvonat [6]

In India, the majority of properties are sold with the help of a real estate broker or agent. When the broker helps a seller and buyer get in touch with each other and both the parties agree to engage in the transaction, then both the parties are required to pay a certain %age of the property value as a fee to the real estate broker. Read below to know about the real estate broker commission rates India:

There are no specific guidelines laid for the commission paid to real estate brokers. In India, real estate agents usually ask the seller and the buyer to pay 1-2% of the deal value as their commission, also known as the real estate brokerage fee.

8 0
2 years ago
A property is being appraised using the income capitalization approach. Annually, it has potential gross income of $40,000, vaca
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

<em>Value $  256,250</em>

<em>rounding against nearest 1,000 dollar: 256,000</em>

<em />

Explanation:

From the gross income we subtract the expenses and vanacy losses.

40,000 gross income - 3,500 vacancy - 16,000 operating expense

20,500 net

<em />

Now, we solve for the present value of a perpetuity given the capitalziation rate of 8%

$ 20,500 /  0.08  =  <em>$  256,250</em>

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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